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Applying Human Factors Principles Additional Questions |
Flight Environments 4-1 Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic?
A - A balloon. B - An aircraft in distress. C - An aircraft on final approach to land.
4-1. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-6 (FAR 91.113) An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over all other aircraft. Answers (A) and (C) are wrong because an aircraft in distress has right-of-way over all other air traffic.
4-2 What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?
A - The faster aircraft shall give way. B - The aircraft on the left shall give way. C - Each aircraft shall give way to the right.
4-2. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-6 (FAR 91.113) The aircraft on the right has the right-of-way and the aircraft on the left shall give way.
4-3 Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?
A - Glider. B - Airship. C - Aircraft refueling other aircraft.
4-3. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-7 (FAR 91.113) In general, the least maneuverable aircraft normally has the right-of-way. A glider has the right-of-way over an airship, airplane, or rotorcraft. An aircraft that is towing ~ or refueling another aircraft has the right-of-way over all other engine-driven aircraft (but not a glider).
4-4 An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right-of-way?
A - The airship. B - The airplane. C - Each pilot should alter course to the right.
4-4. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-7 (FAR 91.113) See explanation for Question 4-3. Since an airship is less maneuverable than an airplane, the airship has the rig ht -of -way.
4-5 Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?
A - Airship. B - Aircraft towing other aircraft. C - Gyroplane.
4-5. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-7 (FAR 91.113) An aircraft towing or refueling another aircraft has the right-of-way over all other engine-driven aircraft.
4-6 What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course?
A - The airplane pilot should give way to the left. B - The glider pilot should give way to the right. C - Both pilots should give way to the right.
4-6. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-6 (FAR 91.113) When any aircraft are approaching each other head-on, both pilots should alter their course to the right. For aircraft approaching head-on, the FARs do not make a distinction between aircraft categories.
The Flight Environment
4-3
4-7 When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft
A - that has the other to its right. B - that is the least maneuverable. C - at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.
4-7. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-8 (FAR 91.113) When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for landing, the one at the lower altitude has the right-of-way, but you should not use this rule to cut in front of another aircraft.
4-8 Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?
A - An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. B - An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. C - An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.
4-8. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-8 (FAR 91.119) Except for a normal takeoff and landing, you must maintain enough altitude to allow an emergency landing in the event of an engine failure without undue hazard to people or property on the surface. Answer (8) is wrong because it combines minimum altitudes for operating over an uncongested area (500 feet above the surface), and a sparsely populated or open water area (500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure). Answer (C) gives the wrong distances for operating over a congested area. It should be 1,000 feet above any obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet.
4-9 Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?
A - An altitude of 1,000 feet above any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. B - An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet of the aircraft. C - An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.
4-9. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-8 (FAR 91.119) See explanation for Question 4-8.
4-10 Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?
A - An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. B - An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. . C - An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle , within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.
4-10. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-8 (FAR 91.119) See explanation for Question 4-8.
4-4
4-11 Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?
A-500 feet. B -700 feet. C - 1,000 feet.
4-11. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-8 (FAR 91.119) See explanation for Question 4-8. The words person,·~ vessel, vehicle, or structure apply for operations over a . sparsely populated or open water area, and the distance is 500 feet.
4-12 When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used?
4-12. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-9 (AFH) With a quartering tailwind, the aileron should be down on the side from which the wind is blowing in order to prevent the wind from flowing under the wing and lifting it.
A - Aileron down on the downwind side. B - Ailerons neutral. C - Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.
4-13 Which aileron positions should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds?
A - Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing. B - Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing. C - Ailerons neutral.
4-13. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-9 (AFH) To counteract the lifting tendency of a quartering headwind, the aileron should be up on the side from which the wind is blowing.
4-14 Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nosewheel equipped high-wing airplane?
A - Quartering tailwind. B - Direct crosswind. C - Quartering headwind.
4-15 (Refer to figure 9, area A.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane into a left quartering headwind?
A - Left aileron up, elevator neutral. B - Left aileron down, elevator neutral. C - Left aileron up, elevator down.
4-15. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-11 (AFH) While taxiing a tricycle-gear airplane in a quartering headwind, the aileron should be up on the side from which the wind is blowing, and the elevator neutral to prevent any lifting force on the tail. In this case, the wind is from the left, so the left aileron should be up.
4-16 (Refer to figure 9, area B.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane into a right quartering headwind?
A - Right aileron up, elevator up. B - Right aileron down, elevator neutral. C - Right aileron up, elevator down.
4-16. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-11 (AFH) In a tailwheel airplane, the aileron is held up on the upwind side, and the elevator is held up to prevent the tail from lifting. Since the tail of most tailwheel airplanes is lower than the nose while taxiing, a strong headwind blowing on a neutral or down elevator could cause the tail to rise.
FIGURE 9.-Control Position for Taxi
4-17 (Refer to figure 9, area C.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane with a left quartering tailwind?
A - Left aileron up, elevator neutral. B - Left aileron down, elevator neutral. C - Left aileron down, elevator down.
4-17. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-11 (AFH) For a quartering tailwind, the controls are held the same for both tailwheel and tricycle-gear airplanes. Ailerons are down on the side from which the wind is blowing. The elevator is down to prevent the wind from lifting the tail.
4-18 (Reserved)
4-19 Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should
A - check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications. B - visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance. C - announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF.
4-19. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-6 (AIM) To ensure you can see other aircraft which may be blocked by blindspots, make clearing turns and scan the area. Answer (A) is wrong because, while it is important to maintain an instrument scan, it is critical to clear the area. Answer (C) is wrong because you should not practice maneuvers in the vicinity of an airport.
4-20 What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?
A - Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace. B - Advise the nearest FSS of the altitude changes. C - Flyaway from the centerline of the airway before changing altitude.
4-20. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-5 (AIM) Because of potential traffic on airways, it is important to scan. Making shallow turns allows you to compensate for blindspots. Answer (B) is wrong because FSS does not provide traffic control or advisories on airways.Answer (C) is wrong because ATC is expecting you to maintain the airway centerline.
4-18. (Reserved)
4-21 What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?
A - Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity. B - The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily. C - All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.
4-21. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-4 (AIM) Since haze reduces visibility, objects are closer than they appear. Answers (A) and (B) are wrong because without a definite visible object, which is sometimes the case in hazy conditions, the eyes tend to relax and focus on a point in space about 3 to 5 feet away, not infinity.
4-22 The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use
A - regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-0' clock positions. B - a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector. C - peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing.
4-22. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-3 (AIM) The eyes are able to focus clearly only on a small area, approximately 10°, so a series of short eye movements is most effective. Answer (A) is wrong because all sectors should be scanned. Answer (C) is not correct because peripheral vision and offcenter viewing are most effective at night, not during the day.
4-23 Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight?
A - Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals. B - Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area. C - Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left.
4-24 How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?
A - The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate. B - The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space. C - There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.
4-24. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-3 (AIM) A lack of relative movement can indicate that the two aircraft are moving toward one another on a collision course. Answer (A) is not correct because there are times when the other aircraft might not appear to get larger and closer until just before a collision. Answer (B) is wrong because even though the aircraft might be headed toward the same point, different aircraft speeds, might keep them from reaching the same point at the same time.
4-24A Most midair collision accidents occur during
A - hazy days. B - clear days. C - cloudy nights.
4-24A. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-2 (AFH) Year after year, NTSB reporting indicates that most midair collisions occur near an airport in daytime VFR weather.
4-25 While operating in class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (V AS I) shall
A - maintain a 3 ° glide until approximately 1/2 mile to the runway before going below the V ASL B - maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. C - stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing.
4-25. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-33 (FAR 91.129) 11 j The VASI glide path provides safe obstruction clearance "I to the runway. Therefore, the pilot should fly at or above the glide path. Answer (A) is wrong because not all VASls have a 3° glide path. Answer (C) is wrong because VASls are intended to provide a glide path for a normal approach.
4-26 When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall
A - maintain an altitude that captures the glide slope at least 2 miles downwind from the runway threshold. B - maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope. C - remain on the glide slope and land between the two-light bar.
4-26. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-33 (FAR 91.129) See explanation for Question 4-25. Answer (A) is not a requirement for using a VASI. Answer (C) is also wrong because VASls provide a glide path to the runway. There is no requirement to land between the light bars.
4-27 Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by
A - white directional lights. B - blue omnidirectional lights. C - alternate red and green lights.
4-27. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-35 (AFH) Taxiway edge lights are blue. Answer (A) is wrong because white lights are used for runway edges and centerlines. Answer (C) is wrong because alternating " red and green lights are not used for taxiway lighting.
4-28 A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is
A - four white lights. B - three white lights and one red light. C - two white lights and two red lights.
4-28. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-34 (AIM) A slightly high indication on a precision approach path indicator shows three white lights and one red light. Answer (A) is a high indication. Answer (C) is on the glide path.
4-29 A below glide slope indication from a tri-color V ASI is a
A - red light signal. B - pink light signal. C - green light signal.
4-29. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-33 (AIM) A below glide slope indication on a tri-color is red. Answer (B) is wrong because the color pink is not used in a tri-color system. A green light (answer C) indicates you are on the glide path.
4-30 An above glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is
A - a white light signal. B - a green light signal. C - an amber light signal.
4-30. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-33 (AIM) Amber is the color used for an above glide path indication. White (answer A) is not used in a tri-color VASI. Answer (B), green, is the indication for being on the glide path.
4-31 An on glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is
A - a white light signal. B - a green light signal. C - an amber light signal.
4-31. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-33 (AIM) See explanation for Question 4-30.
4-32 A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a
A - pulsating white light. B - steady white light. C - pulsating red light.
4-32. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-34 (AIM) A pulsating approach slope indicator provides a pulsating red light when below glide slope. Answer (A), pulsating white, is above glide slope. Answer (8), steady white, is on glide slope.
4-33 (Refer to figure 48.) Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is
A - below the glide slope. B - on the glide slope. C - above the glide slope.
4-33. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-33 (AIM) A red over white indication is on glide slope.
4-34 (Refer to figure 48.) VASI lights as shown by illustration C indicate that the airplane is
A - off course to the left. B - above the glide slope. C - below the glide slope.
4-34. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-33 (AIM) A white over white indication is above glide slope.
4-35 (Refer to figure 48.) While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is
A - above the glide slope. B - below the glide slope. C - on the glide slope.
4-35. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-33 (AIM) A red over red indication is below the glide slope.
4-36 To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, then click it
A-onetime. B - three times. C - five times.
4-36. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-36 (AIM) At airports with three-step pilot-controlled runway lighting system, seven clicks turns all the lights on to the maximum intensity. Five clicks turns the lights to medium. One click, (answer A) does not change the light setting. Three clicks (answer B) turns the lights to the lowest intensity.
4-37 An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates
A - there are obstructions on the airport. B - that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums. C - the Air Traffic Control tower is not in operation.
4-37. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-31 (AIM) When the airport beacon is on during the daytime, it usually means that the ceiling is less than 1 ,000 feet and/or the visibility is less than three statute miles (below basic VFR minimums). The beacon is not used to indicate obstructions (answer A), nor does it indicate that the control tower is not in operation (answer C).Remember, though, the airport beacon may not always be turned on when the weather is below VFR minimums.
4-38 A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits
A - white and green alternating flashes. B - two quick, white flashes between green flashes. C - green, yellow, and white flashes.
4-38. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-32 (AIM) A military airport beacon has two quick flashes of white light between green flashes. Answer (A) indicates a civilian airport beacon. Answer (C) indicates a heliport.
4-39 How can a military airport be identified at night?
A - Alternate white and green light flashes. B - Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes. C - White flashing lights with steady green at the same location.
4-39. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-32 (AIM) See explanation for Question 4-38. Answer (C) does not describe any airport beacon.
4-40 (Refer to figure 49.) That portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for
A-landing. B - taxiing and takeoff. C - taxiing and landing.
4-40. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-24 (AIM) At many airports, the area prior to a displaced threshold may be used for taxi and takeoff (and rollout after landing). Answers (A) and (C) are wrong because you may not land on this part of a runway.
4-41 (Refer to figure 49.) According to the airport diagram, which statement is true?
A - Runway 30 is equipped at position E with emergency arresting gear to provide a means of stopping military aircraft. B - Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B. C - The takeoff and landing portion of Runway 12 begins at position B.
4-41. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-24 (AIM) See explanation for Question 4-40. Landings may be made after the displaced threshold at position "B." Answer (A) is not correct because area "E" is a blastpad/stopway. Answer (C) is wrong because takeoffs may be started before the displaced threshold and landing rollouts may be completed in area "A."
4-42 (Refer to figure 49.) What is the difference between area A and area E on the airport depicted?
A - "A" may be used for taxi and takeoff; "E" may be used only as an overrun. B - "A" may be used for all operations except heavy aircraft landings; "E" may be used only as an overrun. C - "A" may be used only for taxiing; "E" may be used for all operations except landings.
4-42. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-24, 25 (AIM) See explanation for Question 4-40. Area "E" is a blastpad/stopway, and because of its pavement strength cannot support continuous operations, but may be used as an overrun. Answer (B) is wrong because area "A" cannot be used for any landings. Answer (C) is wrong because takeoffs and landing rollouts are allowed in area "A," and area "E" is unusable.
4-12
4-43 (Refer to figure 49.) Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a
A - stabilized area. B - multiple heliport. C - closed runway.
4-43. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-25 (AIM) A closed runway is marked by X's painted on its surface.
4-44 (Refer to figure 50.) The arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area
A - may be used only for taxiing. B - is usable for taxiing, takeoff, and landing. C - cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff.
4-44. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-24 (AIM) See explanation for Question 4-40.
4-45 The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately
A - 009° and 027° true. B - 090° and 270° true. C - 090° and 270° magnetic.
4-45. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-17 (AIM) Runway numbers correspond to the magnetic, not true, direction, and are rounded to the nearest 10°, with the last zero omitted.
4-46 (Refer to figure 50.) Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing.
A - Left-hand traffic and Runway 18. C - Left-hand traffic and Runway 22.
4-46. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-17 (AIM) The wind indicates a landing should be made to the south, and the segmented circle shows right-hand traffic for Runway 18. Answer (A) is wrong because the segmented circle indicates a right-hand pattern for Runway 18. Answer (C) is wrong because Runway 22 is closed.
4-47 (Refer to figure 50.) If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on
A - Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right. B - Runway 22 directly into the wind. C - Runway 36 and expect a crosswind from the right.
4-47. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-20 (AIM) The wind is from the southwest, so a landing on Runway 18 would provide both a headwind component and a crosswind from the right. Answer (B) is wrong because Runway 22 is closed. Answer (C) is wrong because landing on Runway 36 would be made with a tailwind and a crosswind from the left.
4-48 (Refer to figure 51.) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is
A -left-hand for Runway 18 and right-hand for Runway 36. B - right-hand for Runway 9 and left-hand for Runway 27. C - left-hand for Runway 36 and right-hand for Runway 18.
4-48. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-21 (AIM) The segmented circle indicates left-hand traffic for Runway 36, and right-hand traffic for Runway 18. Answer (A) is opposite this. Answer (B) is wrong because left-hand traffic is used for Runway 9 and right-hand traffic for Runway 27.
4-49 (Refer to figure 51.) The traffic patterns indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the
A - south of the airport. B - north of the airport. C - southeast of the airport.
4-49. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-21 (AIM) Since the traffic pattern for the north-south runway is west of the field, and the pattern for the east-west runway is north of the field, there should be no flights southeast of the airport.
4-14
4-50 (Refer to figure 51 on page 4-13.) The segmented circle indicates that a landing on Runway 26 will be with a
A - right-quartering headwind. B -left-quartering headwind. C - right-quartering tailwind.
4-50. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-21 (AIM) Since the wind cone shows wind from the northwest, a f landing to the west will provide a right-quartering headwind.
4-51 (Refer to figure 51 on page 4-13.) Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle?
A - Right-hand traffic on Runway 18. B - Left-hand traffic on Runway 36. C - Right-hand traffic on Runway 9.
4-51. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-21 (AIM) With wind from the northwest, landing on Runway 36 would provide a quartering headwind. Answers (A) and (C) are poor choices because you would be landing with a tailwind.
4-52 Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) program?
A - Recreational pilots only. B - Military pilots. C - Student pilots.
4-52. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-30 (AIM 4-3-11) Student pilots or pilots not familiar with LAHSO should not accept LAHSO clearances. Recreational and military pilots have no limitations, provided they are familiar with the LHASO program.
4-53 Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
A - Pilot-in-command. B - Owner/operator. C - Second-in-command.
4-53. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-30 (AIM 4-3-11) The pilot in command (PIC) has the final authority to accept or decline any LAHSO clearances. The PIC should decline a LAHSO clearance if he/she determines it will compromise safety.
4-54 When should pilots decline a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
A - When it will compromise safety. B - Only when the tower operator concurs. C - Pilots can not decline clearance.
4-54. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-30 (AIM 4-3-11) The pilot in command (PIC) has the final authority to accept or decline any LAHSO clearances. The PIC should decline a LAHSO clearance if he/she determines it will compromise safety.
4-55 Where is the "Available Landing Distance" (ALD) data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) published?
A - Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD). B - 14 CPR Part 91, General Operating and Flight Rules. C - Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM).
4-55. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-30 (AIM 4-3-11) ALD data is published in the special notices section of the Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD) and in the U.S. Terminal Procedures Publications.
4-56 What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
A - 3 nautical miles B-3 statute miles. C - 1 statute mile.
4-56. Answer B. (AIM 4-3-11) Pilots should only receive a LAHSO clearance when there is a minimum ceiling of 1 ,000 feet and 3 statute miles visibility.
4-56A When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot
A - may continue taxiing. B - should not cross the lines without ATC clearance. C - should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines.
4-56A. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-26 (AIM) When approaching a taxiway hold line from the side with the continuous (solid) line at a towered airport, pilots should not cross the hold line without ATC clearance. At a non-towered airport, stop and check for traffic before crossing any hold line.
4-56B The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately
A - 0080 and 0260 true. B - 0800 and 2600 true. C - 0800 and 2600 magnetic.
4-56B. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-17 (PH B) Runway numbers indicate the runway's MAGNETIC direction to the nearest 10 degrees. Runway 8 (really 080) would have a magnetic direction of approximately 0800, and 26 would be approximately 2600 magnetic.
4-56C The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is
A - 450 to the base leg just below traffic pattern altitude. B - to enter 450 at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude. C - to cross directly over the airport at traffic pattern altitude and join the downwind leg.
4-56C. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-18 (PHB) The recommended standard left-hand traffic pattern specifies a 45° entry at the midpoint of the runway on the downwind leg.
4-56D What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?
A - Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway. B - Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway. C - Denotes intersecting runways.
4-56D. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-28 (AFH) The runway/runway hold position sign displays the headings of the runway in white letters on a red background. It is a mandatory instruction sign that is equivalent, and usually coexistent, with a hold short taxiway marking.
4-56E What does the outbound destination sign identify?
A - Identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway. B - Identifies direction to take-off runways. C - Identifies runway on which an aircraft is located.
4-56E. Answer B. (PHB) (AIM) An outbound destination sign displays black text on a yellow background, and a vertical black arrow. These signs always have an arrow showing the direction of the taxing route to that destination. 4-56F If a control tower and an FSS are located on the same airport, which function is provided by the FSS during those periods when the tower is closed?
A - Automatic closing of the IFR flight plan. B - Approach control services. C - Airport Advisory Service.
4-56F Answer C. AIM 3-5-1 Local Airport Advisory (LAA) service is one of several t airport advisory/information services operated within 10 statute miles of an airport where a control tower is not operating but where a flight service station (FSS) is located on the airport. At such locations, the FSS provides a complete local airport advisory service to arriving and departing aircraft. During periods of fast-changing weather the FSS will automatically provide Final Guard (wind/altimeter monitoring service) from the time the aircraft reports "on-final" or "taking-the-active- runway" until the aircraft reports "on-the-ground" or "airborne."
4-56G When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?
A -When visibility is less than 1 mile. B.-When parallel runways are in use. C- When departing from a runway intersection.
4-56G Answer C. AIM 4-3-10 The tower assumes you are at the end of the runway unless you tell them the intersection. For example: "Centennial Tower, Cessna 5-2-3-8-Kilo, at intersection Alpha-3, Runway 3-5-right, ready for takeoff."
The Flight Environment
Flight service stations do not provide air traffic control services, such as automatically closing flight plans and approach control.
SECTION C AERONAUTICAL CHARTS
Maps are essential in turning imaginary excursions into actual trips. Aeronautical charts are maps which provide a detailed portrayal of an area's topography and include aeronautical and navigational information. Before you learn about the specific features and symbology of aeronautical charts, you need to understand some basic concepts which apply to representations of the earth's surface on maps.
LATITUDE AND LONGITUDE 1. In the United States, latitude increases as you travel north, and longitude increases as you travel west. Each tick mark on the sectional chart represents one minute of latitude or longitude.
SECTIONAL CHARTS 2. A blue segmented circle on a sectional chart depicts Class D airspace. 3. Others- refer to figures
CHART SYMBOLS 4. (Refer to figures)
4-57 (Refer to figure 21, area 3 on page 4-19.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport.
A - 36°24'N -76°01'W. B - 36°48'N - 76°01'W. C - 47°26'N - 75°58'W.
4-57. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-41 (PHS) This airport is located to the northeast of the number "3." Starting at the bottom of the chart at the 36° latitude, count upwards along the longitudinal line until you are opposite the airport. Each tick mark represents one minute of latitude, so the airport is located at 36°24'N. It also lies slightly more than one tick mark west of the 76° longitude line. In the United States (Western Hemisphere), longitude increases as you go west.Therefore, the airport is located at 36°24'N and 76°01'W.
14-58 (Refer to figure 22, area 2 on page 4-20.) Which airport is located at approximately 47°39'30''N latitude and 100053'00''W longitude?
A-Linrud. B - Crooked Lake. C-Johnson.
4-58. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-41 (PHB) Note that the 48° latitude line crosses the top third of the chart. The latitude line along the bottom third is 30' less, or 4J030'N. Count up 9-1/2 tick marks (minutes) for 4J039'30"N. Since the airport's longitude is less than 1 01°W, move to the right of the 101 ° line seven tick marks to arrive at 100053'00'W. This intersection is at Crooked Lake Airport.
4-59 (Refer to figure 22, area 2 on page 4-20.) The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is
A-123.0MHz. B - 122.8 MHz. C - 122.9 MHz.
4-59. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-47 (AIM) The frequency next to the CTAF symbol (the letter "C" in a dark circle) is the multicom frequency of 122.9.
4-60 (Refer to figure 23, area 2 on page 4-21; and figure 32 on page 4-26.) At Coeur D' Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions?
A - 122.05 MHz. B -122.11108.8 MHz. C - 122.8 MHz.
4-60. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-47 (AIM) In this example, the airport data block located near Coeur D'Alene airport lists 122.8 as the CTAF frequency that should be used to self-announce your position and your intentions. In addition, the Airport/Facility Directory excerpt (figure 32) specifies 122.8 as both the CTAF and UNICOM frequency. The frequency 122.05 (answer A) is depicted on the VOR/DME box, and is used to communicate with Boise FSS. 108.8 (answer B) is the frequency used to tune and identify the Coeur D'Alene VOR/DME.
4-61 (Refer to figure 23, area 2 on page 4-21; and figure 32 on page 4-26.) At Coeur D' Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?
A-122.05 MHz. B - 122.8 MHz. C - 135.075 MHz.
4-61. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-47 (AIM) At non-towered airports, the CTAF frequency is used to self-announce position or intentions. Figure 32 lists the CTAF/Unicom Frequency as 122.8 MHz. The CTAF symbol in Figure 23 is beside the frequency of 122.8 MHz.
4-62 l (Refer to figure 23, area 2 on page 4-21; and figure 32 on page 4-26.) What is the correct UNICOM frequency to be used at Coeur D' Alene to request fuel?
A - 122.1/108.8 MHz. B – 122.8 MHz. C – 135.075 MHz.
4-62. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-47 (AIM) Use the Unicom/CTAF frequency of 122.8 to request fuel, transportation, or other airport information of a general nature.
4-63 (Refer to figure 26, area 3 on page 4-24.) If Redbird Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?
A - 120.3 MHz. B - 122.95 MHz. C - 126.35 MHz.
4-63. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-47 (AIM) Since the tower frequency, designated "CT - 120.3" is next to the CTAF symbol, the CTAF frequency is the tower frequency. UNICOM is 122.95 (answer B), and ATIS is 126.35 (answer C).
4-64 (Refer to figure 27, area 4 on page 4-25.) The CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Jamestown Airport is
A - 122.0 MHz. B - 123.0 MHz. C - 123.6 MHz . 4-64. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-47 (AIM) The CTAF symbol is next to the frequency 123.0. Answer (A) is wrong because 122.0 is the standard Enroute Fight Advisory Service (Flight Watch) frequency. Answer (C) is incorrect because 123.6 is an FSS frequency.
4-65 (Refer to figure 27, area 6 on page 4-25.) What is the CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Barnes County Airport?
A - 122.0 MHz. B - 122.8 MHz. C - 123.6 MHz.
4-65. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-47 (AIM) The CTAF symbol is next to the UNICOM frequency 122.8. 122.0 is the frequency for Flight Watch, and 123.6 is an FSS frequency used for airport advisory service.
4-66 (Refer to figure 27, area 3 on page 4-25.) When flying over Arrowwood National Wildlife Refuge, a pilot should fly no lower than
A - 2,000 feet AGL. B - 2,500 feet AGL. C - 3,000 feet AGL.
4-66. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-44 (AIM) Pilots are requested to maintain a minimum of 2,000 feet above National Wildlife Refuges.
4-67 (Refer to figure 22 on page 4-20.) On what frequency can a pilot receive Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) in the vicinity of area I?
A-117.1 MHz. B -118.0 MHz. C - 122.0 MHz.
4-67. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-48 (Chart Legend) The circled "H" in the corner of the Minot VORTAC indicates that weather information (HIWAS) is available over the VOR frequency, which is 117.1 (answer A). The TACAN channel is 118, but does not broadcast HIWAS. The frequency 118.0 MHz (answer B) is not listed. 122.0 (answer C) is the standard EFAS frequency.
4-68 (Refer to figure 21, area 5 on page 4-19.) The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft?
A - Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,000 feet MSL. B - Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,000 feet AGL. C - Unmarked blimp hangers at 300 feet MSL.
4-68. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-51 (Chart Legend) The CAUTION box indicates an unmarked balloon on a cable to 3,000 feet MSL. No other hazards to aircraft are included in the CAUTION box.
4-69 (Refer to figure 21, area 2 on page 4-19.) The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a
A - compulsory reporting point for Norfolk Class C airspace. B - compulsory reporting point for Hampton Roads Airport. C - visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control.
4-69. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-51 (Chart Legend) The flag represents a visual checkpoint used to identify your position for approach control. Since the flag is 22 nautical miles southwest of Norfolk International Airport, it can be assumed that the checkpoint is used when contacting Norfolk Approach. The flag does not indicate a compulsory reporting point (answers A and B).
4-70 (Refer to figure 21, area 2 on page 4-19.) The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is
A-20 feet. B - 360 feet. C - 36 feet.
4-70. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-47 (Chart Legend) The elevation is the first number listed on the last line of this airport description. In this case, it is 20 feet.
4-71 (Refer to figure 22 on page 4-20.) The terrain elevation of the light tan area between Minot (area 1) and Audubon Lake (area 2) varies from
A - sea level to 2,000 feet MSL. B - 2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL. C - 2,000 feet to 2,700 feet MSL.
4-71. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-43 (Chart Legend) The colored scale shows that the tan area represents terrain above 2,000 feet MSL. In addition, the legend states that the contour interval is 500 feet. Between Minot and Audubon Lake, there are no contour lines in the tan area, which indicates there is no terrain above 2,500 feet. A check of the airports in this area shows their elevations are all less than 2,500 feet. In addition, tower heights in MSL minus their AGL heights all yield base elevations less than 2,500 feet.
4-72 (Refer to figure 22 on page 4-20.) Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel?
A - Minot IntI. (area 1) and Garrison (area 2). B - Minot IntI. (area 1) and Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3). C - Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) and Garrison (area 2).
4-72. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-46 (Chart Legend) Tick marks around an airport symbol indicate fuel is available.
4-73 (Refer to figure 24 on page 4-22.) The flag symbols at Statesboro Bullock County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are
A - airports with special traffic patterns. B - outer boundaries of Savannah Class C airspace. C - visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace.
4-73. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-47 (Chart Legend) ~ The flag symbols represent checkpoints used to identify ~ the aircraft position for Approach Control. In this case, they are visual checkpoints used when contacting Savannah Approach Control.
4-74 (Refer to figure 24, area 3 on page 4-22.) What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International?
A -1,500 feet MSL. B -1,531 feet AGL. C -1,549 feet MSL.
4-74. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-51 (Chart Legend) About 6 nautical miles southwest of the center of Savannah International airport is a lighted obstacle with its elevation marked as 1,549 (1,534). The first number is height in MSL, and the number in parentheses is height AGL. Answer (B), although only three feet off, is not as good as Answer (C), which exactly agrees with the MSL altitude of the obstacle in question.
4-75 (Refer to figure 24, area 3 on page 4-22.) The top of the group obstruction approximately 11 nautical miles from the Savannah VORTAC on the 3400 radial is
A - 360 feet AGL. B - 455 feet MSL. C - 432 feet MSL.
4-75. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-51 (Chart Legend) The callout below the group obstruction at the Savannah 3400 radial for 11 n.m. is 455 feet MSL. If there was a callout in parentheses, it would indicate an AGL altitude.
4-76 (Refer to figure 25, area 1 on page 4-23.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 feet?
A -1,010 feet MSL. B - 1,273 feet MSL. C - 1,283 feet MSL.
4-76. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-51 (Chart Legend) To clear the obstacle by 500 feet, you need to add 500 to the obstacle height of 773 feet MSL. The answer is 1,273 feet MSL. The airport elevation (510) plus 500 feet is 1,010 feet MSL (answer A). Answer (C), 1,283 feet MSL, can be derived by adding the airport elevation to the obstacle height.
4-77 (Refer to figure 25, area 2 on page 4-23.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet?
A - 823 feet MSL. B - 1,013 feet MSL. C - 1,403 feet MSL.
4-77. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-51 (Chart Legend) In this question, you need to add 500 feet to the obstacle height of 903 feet MSL. The answer is 1,403 feet MSL. Answer (A) can be found by adding 500 feet to 323 feet, which is the AGL height. However, this would place the aircraft below the top of the 903-foot obstacle. Answer (B) can be found by adding 500 feet to the airport elevation of 513 feet.
4-78 (Refer to figure 26, area 2 on page 4-24.) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is
A - 122.95 MHz. B - 126.0 MHz. C - 133.4 MHz.
4-78. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-47 (Chart Legend) The tower frequency at Addison Airport is 126.0 as indicated by the letters "CT:' Answer (A) is wrong because 122.95 is the UNICOM frequency. 133.4 (answer C) is the ATIS frequency.
4-79 (Refer to figure 26, area 8 on page 4-24.) What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area south of NAS Dallas?
A - 2,555 feet MSL. B - 3,349 feet MSL. C - 3,449 feet MSL.
4-79. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-51 (14 CFR Part 91.119) Since this is a congested area, add 1,000 feet to the highest obstacle. The elevation (height) of these towers is 2,449 feet MSL (1 ,640 feet AGL), so the minimum altitude would be 3,449 feet MSL.
4-80 (Refer to figure 26, area 5 on page 4-24.) The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft. Worth International (DFW) is a
A-VOR. B- VORTAC. C- VORJDME.
4-80. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-48 (Chart Legend) This symbol appears immediately south of the runways at DFW. According to Legend 1, which immediately precedes the sample sectional charts, a hexagon surrounded by a square is a VOR/DME symbol.
4-81 Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than
A-l,000 feet AGL. B - 2,000 feet AGL. C - 3,000 feet AGL.
Answer B. GFDPPM 4-44 (AIM) Pilots should fly no lower than 2,000 feet AGL over a national wildlife area.
4-81A Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?
A - Airports with control towers underlying Class A, B, and C airspace are shown in blue, Class D and E airspace are magenta. B - Airports with control towers underlying Class C, D, and E airspace are shown in magenta. C - Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue.
4-81A. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-46 Airports with control towers are depicted in blue on sectional charts.
4-81B Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?
A - Lines of longitude are parallel to the Equator. B - Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles. C - The 0° line of latitude passes through Greenwich, England.
4-81 B. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-40 Lines of longitude connect the poles, and therefore, are perpendicular to the equator. This is why answer A is wrong and answer B is correct. C is incorrect because the 0° line of LONGITUDE (also know as the Prime Meridian) passes through Greenwich, England.
The Flight Environment
4-31
SPECIAL VFR 19. A special VFR clearance allows the pilot to operate VFR within Class D airspace when the visibility is at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds. 20. To operate under special VFR at night you must have a current instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight. 21. Special VFR for fixed-wing aircraft is not authorized at airports with "No Special VFR" written over the airport identification name.
SPECIAL USE AIRSPACE Special use airspace serves to confine certain flight activities and to place limitations on aircraft operations which are not part of these activities.
ALERT 22. All pilots flying within an alert area are equally responsible for collision avoidance.
MOAs 23. MOAs signify high density military training activities. 24. When operating VFR in an MOA, pilots should exercise extreme caution when military training is being conducted.
WARNING 25. Warning areas often contain hazards such as aerial gunnery and guided missiles.
RESTRICTED 26. Pilots may fly through a restricted area only with the controlling agency's authorization.
MILITARY TRAINING ROUTES 27. IR designates an IFR military training route, where aircraft may fly at speeds in excess of 250 knots. 28. When the route is a three digit number, the route contains one or more sections above 1500 feet AGL.
4-82 (Refer to figure 27, area 2 on page 4-25) The day VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown, after departing and climbing out of the Cooperstown Airport at or below 700 feet AGL are
A - 1 mile and clear of clouds. B - mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds. C - 3 miles and clear of clouds.
4-82. Answer A. (FAR 91.155) This airspace is Class G below 700 feet AGL. The VFR minimums are 1 mile and clear of clouds.
4-83 Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from
A - 700 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL. B - 1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL. C - the surface up to and including 18,000 feet MSL.
4-83. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-60 (AIM) Federal Airways normally begin at 1,200 feet AGL and extend up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL. Answer (A) is not correct because 700 feet is the floor of Class E airspace associated with an airport for which an approved instrument approach procedure has been published. Answer (C) is wrong because airways do not normally begin at the surface, and do not include 18,000 feet MSL.
4-32
4-84 Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least
A -1,000 feet and 1 mile. B - 1,000 feet and 3 miles. C - 2,500 feet and 3 miles.
4-84. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-82 (FAR 91.155) In order to operate in Class 0 airspace, the VFR visibility minimum is three statute miles. In addition, the ceiling must be at least 1 ,000 feet. Answer (A) is incorrect because the visibility is less than that required. The 2,500 feet in answer (C) is the top of most Class 0 airspace areas.
4-85 At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92, when climbing to cruising flight level?
A - 14,500 feet MSL. B - 18,000 feet MSL. C - 24,000 feet MSL.
4-85. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-71 (FAR 91.121) To standardize altimeter settings in Class A airspace, all pilots are required to set their altimeters to 29.92 at and above 18,000 feet MSL.
4-86 A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?
A-Class B. B - Class C. C- Class D.
4-86. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-79 (Chart Legend) Class 0 airspace is designated on sectional charts by a blue segmented circle. Class 8 airspace is indicated by a solid blue line. Class C airspace is designated by a solid magenta line. Therefore, answers (A) and (8) are incorrect.
4-87 Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only
A - when the weather minimums are below basic VFR. B - when the associated control tower is in operation. C - when the associated Flight Service Station is in operation.
4-87. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-62 (AIM) In order for airspace to be classified as Class 0 there I must be an operating control tower. Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because they do not address the part-time control tower.
4-88 Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs
A - at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions. B - at all tower controlled airports only when weather conditions are less than VFR. C - at all tower controlled airports within Class D airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR.
4-88. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-63 (FAR 91.129) When operating at an airport where a control tower is in operation, you must be in radio contact with ATC whether or not VFR conditions exist. Therefore, answers (8) and (C) are incorrect.
4-89 Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?
A-Class C. B - Class E. C -Class G.
The Flight Environment
4-89. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-65 (FAR 91.130) You must establish two-way communications prior to entering a Class C airspace area, and maintain it while operating within the Class C airspace. Answers (8) and (C) are wrong because two-way communications are I not required in Class E or G airspace.
The Flight Environment
4-33
4-90 What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?
A - Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder. B - Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and DME. C - Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
4-90. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-65 (FAR 91.130, 91.215) To operate in a Class C airspace area, you are required to have both a two-way radio and a 4096-code transponder with encoding altimeter. Answer (A) does not include the requirement for an encoding altimeter and DME is not a requirement for Class C airspace (answer B).
4-91 What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?
A - Recreational Pilot Certificate. B - Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements. C - Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.
4-92 What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?
A - Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements. B - Commercial Pilot Certificate. C - Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.
4-93 What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?
A - Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder. B - Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter. C - Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, an encoding altimeter, and a VOR or TACAN receiver.
4-94 An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in
A - Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport. B - Class D airspace. C - Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL.
4-91. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-65 (FAR 91.131) To operate in a Class B airspace area, a pilot must hold a private pilot certificate. However, within certain Class B airspace areas, student pilot operations may be conducted after receiving specific training and a logbook endorsement from an authorized flight instructor.
4-92. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-65 (FAR 91.131) To operate in a Class B airspace area, a pilot must hold a private pilot certificate. However, within certain Class B airspace areas, student pilot operations may be conducted after receiving specific training and a logbook endorsement from an authorized flight instructor.
4-93. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-65 (FAR 91.131) VFR operations within Class B airspace areas require a two-way radio and a 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter. Answer (A) does not include the requirement for an encoding altimeter, and VOR or TACAN receivers are only required for instrument flight (answer C).
4-94. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-65 (FAR 91.131) A 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required for operations within a Class B airspace area. It is not required in Class D airspace or Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL (answers B and C).
4-34
4-95 In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?
A-ClassA. B -Class B. C - Class C.
4-96 During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight IS
A -1,000 feet. B-l,500 feet. C - 2,000 feet.
4-97 What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?
A-I mile visibility and clear of clouds. B-1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds. C - 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.
4-98 What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?
A-I mile. B-3 miles. C-4miles.
4-99 The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is
A - remain clear of clouds. B - 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally. C - 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
4-100 During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is
A-500 feet. B - 1,000 feet. C - 1,500 feet.
The Flight Environment
4-95. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-71 (FAR 91.135) Only IFR operations are allowed in Class A airspace. 4 VFR flights are allowed in Class Band C airspace if authorized by ATC.
4-96. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-82 (FAR 91.155) In controlled airspace, other than Class B, below 10,000 feet, it does not matter whether you are above or below 1,200 feet AGL. The VFR cloud clearance is 2,000 feet horizontal.
4-97. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-82 (FAR 91.155) For VFR flight in uncontrolled airspace below 1,200 feet during daytime, you are only required to have 1 mile visibility and remain clear of clouds. Answer (B) applies between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL during daytime in uncontrolled airspace. Answer (C) Applies to Class B airspace.
4-98. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-82 (FAR 91.155) Since an airway is Class E airspace, the minimum visibility below 10,000 feet MSL is 3 statute miles.
4-99. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-82 (FAR 91.155) The VFR cloud clearances for Class E airspace apply. Below 10,000 feet MSL, you must remain 500 feet below, 1 ,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
4-100. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-82 (FAR 91.155) Below 10,000 feet MSL in Class C and D airspace, the cloud clearances are 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal. In Class B airspace, however, the cloud clearance is just "clear of clouds." "Clear of clouds" is not offered in answers (A) or (C). Therefore, answer (B) has to be the correct choice. 4
The Flight Environment
4-35
4-101 ~ VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of
A - 3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace. B - 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds at all altitudes. C - 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds only in Class A airspace.
4-102 During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is
A-I mile. B- 3 miles. C- 5 miles.
4-103 Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight ~ hours is
A-I mile. B-3 miles. C-5 miles.
4-104 During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is
A-500 feet. B - 1,000 feet. C - 1,500 feet.
4-105 The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is
A-I mile. B-3 miles. C-5 miles.
4-101. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-82 (FAR 91.155) See explanation for Question 4-100. The visibility and cloud clearances listed in answers (8) and (C) apply only above 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL.
4-102. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-82 (FAR 91.155) In Class G airspace at these altitudes, night VFR operations require 3 miles visibility. Answer (A) is wrong, as 1 mile is the minimum required for daytime at these altitudes. Answer (C) is wrong, since 5 miles is required above 1,200 AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL for both day and night.
4-103. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-82 (FAR 91.155) See explanation for Question 4-102. In uncontrolled airspace below 10,000 feet MSL and above 1,200 feet AGL, required daytime visibility is 1 mile.
4-104. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-82 (FAR 91.155) At night, in uncontrolled airspace below 10,000 feet MSL (both above and below 1,200 feet AGL), the VFR cloud clearance is 500 feet below. Answer (8), 1,000 feet, is the clearance above clouds at these altitudes. Answer (C), 1,500 feet, is inappropriate.
4-105. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-82 (FAR 91.155) At or above 10,000 feet MSL and above 1,200 feet AGL, the required visibility is 5 statute miles, whether in controlled or uncontrolled airspace.
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4-106 ForVFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is
A - 1,000 feet. B - 2,000 feet. C-l mile.
4-107 During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is
A-500 feet. B -1,000 feet. C -1,500 feet.
4-108 No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the
A - flight visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile. B - ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile. C - ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.
4-109 The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are
A - 500-foot ceiling and 1 mile visibility. B - 1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility. C - clear of clouds and 2 miles visibility.
4-110 A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is
A -less than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet. B - at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds. C - at least 3 miles and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
4-111 What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under special VFR in Class D airspace?
A-I mile flight visibility. B-1 mile flight visibility and 1,000-foot ceiling. C - 3 miles flight visibility and 1,000-foot ceiling.
The Flight Environment
4-106. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-82 (FAR 91.155) Whether in controlled or uncontrolled airspace at these 4 altitudes, the minimum VFR horizontal distance from clouds is 1 statute mile.
4-107. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-82 (FAR 91.155) For VFR flights at these altitudes, whether in controlled airspace or not, you are required to remain 1,000 feet above clouds. The only exception is for daytime operations below 1,200 feet AGL in uncontrolled airspace. In this case it is clear of clouds.
4--108. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-63 (FAR 91.155) To take off or land under VFR in a Class 0 airspace area, the ceiling must be at least 1,000 feet and the ground visibility must be at least 3 statute miles. Flight visibility may be used if ground visibility is not available. Answers (A) and (8) are wrong since they reflect 1 statute mile visibility which only applies under special VFR.
4-109. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-82 (FAR 91.155) See explanation for Question 4-108. Answers (A) and (C) do not reflect normal or special VFR weather minimums.
4-110. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-71 (FAR 91.157) When authorized by ATC, special VFR allows you to operate with one statute mile visibility as long as you can remain clear of clouds.
4-111. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-71 (FAR 91.157) See explanation for Question 4-110.
The Flight Environment
4-37
4-112 What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?
A - The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace. S - The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder. C - The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped.
....113 :So person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the
A - flight can be conducted 500 feet below the clouds. B - airplane is equipped for instrument flight. C - flight visibility is at least 3 miles.
4-114 An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?
A - Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport), and Class C. B - Class D and Class E (below 10,000 feet MSL). C - Class D and Class G (below 10,000 feet MSL).
4-115 With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with
A - an operable VOR or TACAN receiver and an ADF receiver. B - instruments and equipment required for IFR operations. C - an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability.
4-116 (Refer to figure 26, area 4 on page 4-24.) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is
A - at the surface. B - 3,200 feet MSL. C - 4,000 feet MSL.
4-112 Answer C. GFDPPM 4-72 (FAR 91.157) For special VFR at night, you must have a current instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped for IFR operations. Answer (A) is wrong because radar is not a requirement for Class D airspace. Answer (8) is incorrect because a transponder is not required in Class D airspace.
4-113. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-72 (FAR 91.157) See explanation for Question 4-112. Answers (A) and (C) are wrong because minimums for special VFR at night are the same as for day (1 statute mile visibility and clear of clouds).
4-114. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-59 (FAR 91.215) A transponder with an encoding transponder is required in Class A, Class 8, and Class C airspace. It is not required in the areas listed in answers (8) and (C).
4-115. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-59 (FAR 91.215) An appropriate transponder capable of providing altitude encoding is required to be in use when within 30 miles of a Class 8 primary airport. Answer (A) is incorrect because a VOR or TACAN receiver (ADF is not applicable) is only required for IFR operations within Class 8 airspace. Answer (8) is incorrect because IFR instruments and equipment are not required for Class 8 airspace operations.
4-116. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-67 (Chart Legend) The altitudes of this portion of the Class 8 airspace are indicated by "110" over "40." This means the Class 8 airspace extends from a floor of 4,000 feet MSL up to 11,000 feet MSL. Answer (A) is wrong because the Class 8 airspace does not begin at the surface in this area. Answer (8) is incorrect because 3,200 feet MSL is the ceiling of the Class D airspace associated with Fort Worth Meacham.
4-38
The Flight Environ
4-117 (Refer to figure 26, area 2 on page 4-24.) The floor of Class B airspace at Addison Airport is
A - at the surface. B - 3,000 feet MSL. C - 3,100 feet MSL.
4-118 (Refer to figure 21 area 4 on page 4-19.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R5302B?
A - Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers. B - Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles. C - High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.
4-119 (Refer to figure 27, area 2 on page 4-25.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA?
A - Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers. B - High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. C - Unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles.
4-120 (Refer to figure 22, area 3 on page 4-20.) What typemilitary flight operations should a pilot expect along IR644?
A - VFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds less than 250 knots. B - IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots. C - Instrument training flights below 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 150 knots.
4-117. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-67 (Chart Legend) The altitudes of this portion of the Class B airspace indicated by "110" over "30:' This means the Class B airspace extends from a floor of 3,000 feet MSL 11,000 feet MSL.
4-118. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-75 (AIM) Restricted areas have invisible hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. Answer (A) describes activities in a MOA.
4-119. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-74 (AIM) Most training activities in a MOA involve acrobatic abrupt flight maneuvers.
4-120. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-77 (AIM) IR routes are designed to be flown by military aircraft at speeds often in excess of 250 kts. An IR Route three letters in the designator (IR 644) indicates more segments are above 1,500 feet AGL.
The Flight Environment
4-39
~ ....121 ,(Refer to figure 23, area 1 on page 4-21.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1,200 feet .-\GL are
.-\ - 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud. B-1 mile and clear of clouds. C - 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
4-122 (Refer to figure 27, area 2 on page 4-25.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are
A 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds. B 1 mile and clear of clouds. C 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
4-123 (Refer to figure 27, area 1 on page 4-25.) Identify the airspace over Lowe Airport.
A - Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL. B - Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL, Class E airspace - 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL. C - Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 700 feet MSL, Class E airspace - 700 feet to 14,500 feet MSL.
4-124 (Refer to figure 27, area 6 on page 4-25.) The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is
A - Class D airspace from the surface to the floor of the overlying Class E airspace. B- Class E airspace from the surface to 1,200 feet MSL. C - Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL.
4-121. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-61 (FAR 91.155) The airspace is Class E above 700 feet AGL. The day VFR minimums are 3 miles visibility and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from all clouds.
4-122. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-61,82 (FAR 91.155) Cooperstown is within the Class E airspace of the Cooperstown Airport. The floor of this airspace is 700 feet AGL. Visibility of 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds is required to operate VFR in controlled airspace below 10,000 feet MSL.
4-123. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-58 (Chart Legend) The lower left corner of the sectional reflects a small amount of the Class E designation line that surrounds this portion of the chart including Lowe Airport. The soft side of the blue line is facing the direction of Lowe Airport, which means that class E extends from 1200 ft AGL to 18,000 MSL.
4-124. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-61 (Chart Legend) The magenta color indicates Class E airspace. If there were magenta segmented lines around the airport, the Class E airspace would begin at the surface. Magenta shading indicates the airspace starts at 700 feet AGL. Below 700 feet the airspace is uncontrolled or Class G. Class 0 airspace is indicated by segmented blue lines.
4-40
4-125 (Refer to figure 26, area 7 on page 4-24.) The airspace overlying Mc Kinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to
A - 2,900 feet MSL. B - 2.500 feet AGL. C - 700 feet MSL.
4-126 (Refer to figure 26, area 4 on page 4-24.) The airspace directly overlying Fort Worth Meacham is
A - Class B airspace to 10,000 feet MSL. B - Class C airspace to 5,000 feet MSL. C - Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL.
4-127 (Refer to figure 24, area 3 on page 4-22.) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?
A - 1,300 feet AGL. B -1,300 feet MSL. C - 1,700 feet MSL.
4-128 (Refer to figure 21, area 1 on page 4-19.) What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International?
A - Mode C transponder and omnireceiver. B - Mode C transponder and two-way radio. C - Mode C transponder, omnireceiver, and DME.
4-129 (Refer to figure 26 on page 4-24.) At which airports is fixed-wing Special VFR not authorized?
A - Fort Worth Meacham and Fort Worth Spinks. B – Dallas/Fort Worth International and Dallas Love Field. C - Addison and Redbird.
The Flight Environment
4-125. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-63 (Chart Legend) The controlled airspace this question is referring to is Class D airspace. The top of Class D airspace (MSL) is shown within the square dashed box.
4-126. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-63 (Chart Legend) The blue segmented circle indicates Fort Worth Meacham is located in Class D airspace. Tha32~ indicates the ceiling of the Class D airspace is 3,200 feet MSL.
4-127 Answer B. GFDPPM 4-64 (AIM) The floor of the outer circle of Class C airspace is normally APPROXIMATELY 1,200 feet AGL. At Savannah, the 1,200 feet AGL has been rounded up to 1,300 feet MSL (airport elevation is 51 feet) The exact limits in MSL are depicted on the chart ("41/13"). Answer A is not correct because the height is MSL not AGL. Answer (C) is not right because the 17 indicates the maximum elevation within the quadrangle is 1,700 feet MSL and has nothing to do with controlled airspace.
4-128. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-59, 65 (FAR 91.130) The area depicted is Class C airspace. Aircraft operating in Class C airspace must be equipped with a Mode C transponder and pilots are required to maintain two-way radio communications. Answers (A) and (C) are wrong because no navigation equipment is specified for operating in Class C airspace.
4-129. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-72 (Chart Legend) The "NO SVFR" over the airport identification name indicates that fixed-wing special VFR is not authorized. The airports listed in answers (A) and (C) permit special VFR.
The Flight Environment
4-41
',4-130 (Refer to figure 23, area 3 on page 4-21.) The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as . a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are
A-l,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL. B -7,500 feet MSL to 17,999 feet MSL. C -700 feet MSL to 12,500 feet MSL.
4-131 The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally
A-l,200 feet AGL. B - 3,000 feetAGL. C - 4,000 feet AGL.
4-132 The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace IS
A - 5 nautical miles. B - 15 nautical miles. C - 20 nautical miles.
4-133 . Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a . satellite airport within Class C airspace?
A - The pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure. B - The pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace. C - The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.
4-134 Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area?
A - When flying on airways with an ATC clearance. B - With the controlling agency's authorization. C - Regulations do not allow this.
4-135 What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
A - Obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA. B - Operate only on the airways that transverse the MOA. ~ C - Exercise extreme caution when military activity , is being conducted.
4-130. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-60 (Chart Legend) Class E airspace includes Federal, or Victor, airways which usually extend to 4 nautical miles on each side of the airway centerline and, unless otherwise indicated, extends from 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL.
4-131. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-64 (AIM) The vertical limit of Class C airspace is 4,000 feet above the primary airport. This is the same for both the inner and outer circles. Answer (A) is wrong because this is the floor of the outer circle (5 n.m to 10 n.m. radius). Answer (8) is wrong because the vertical limit is 4,000 feet AGL, not 3,000 feet.
4-132 Answer C. GFDPPM 4-64 (AIM) The outer area of Class C airspace normally extends 20 nautical miles from the primary airport. Answer (A) is the dimension of the inner circle, while answer (8) is not used to define any portion of Class C airspace. The outer circle has a radius of 10 nautical miles.
4-133. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-65 (FAR 91.130) A pilot must establish two-way communications with ATC as soon as practical after takeoff. Answer (A) is not a requirement for operating in Class C airspace. Answer (8) is not entirely correct, as it does not state that two-way communications must be established.
4-134. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-75 (FAR 91.133) The controlling agency may grant permission to fly through a restricted area. Answer (A) is wrong because airways do not usually transit a restricted area. Answer (C) is wrong because the FARs do allow pilots to fly through restricted areas if they have authorization from the controlling agency.
4-135. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-74 (AIM) Due to the possibility of military training activities, pilots operating in a MOA should use extra caution and be alert for other aircraft. Answer (A) is wrong because a clearance is not required. Answer (8) is wrong because VFR pilots are not restricted to airways in a MOA.
4-42
4-136 Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with
A - the controlling agency. B - all pilots. C - Air Traffic Control.
4-137 The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on
A - the number of airports that lie within the Class D airspace. B - five statute miles from the geographical center of the primary airport. C - the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.
4-138 A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the
A - satellite airport's UNICOM. B - associated Flight Service Station. C - primary airport's control tower.
4-139 Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?
A - Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency. B - Contact the tower and request permission to enter. C - Contact the FSS for traffic advisories.
4-140 What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace?
A - Automated Flight Service Station. B - Air Traffic Control Tower. C - Air Route Traffic Control Center.
4-141 Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has
A - filed an IFR flight plan. B - received prior authorization from the controlling agency. C - received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base.
The Flight Environment
4-136. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-73 (AIM) All pilots flying in an alert area, whether participating in 4 activities or transitioning the area, are equally responsible for collision avoidance. Answers (A) and (C) are wrong, because even when operating under Air Traffic Control, pilots are not relieved of their responsibility for collision avoidance.
4-137. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-63 (AIM) The actual lateral dimensions of Class D airspace varies with each location, but, in general, Class D airspace is based on the instrument procedures for the airports in that area. Answer (A) is wrong because, to the maximum extent practical and consistent with safety, satellite airports have been excluded from Class D airspace. Answer (8) is the dimension of the old "airport traffic area" designation, which is no longer valid.
4-138. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-63 (FAR 91.129) When approaching Class D airspace, you must contact the primary airport's control tower before entering the airspace. When departing a nontowered satellite airport, contact the controlling tower as soon as practical after takeoff. Answers (A) and (8) are wrong because the regulation specifically states you must contact the ATC facility providing air traffic services. UNICOM and the Flight Service Station, in this context, do not fit the ~ definition of an ATC facility providing these services. ,
4-139. Answer A. GFDPPM 4-65 (AIM) Prior to entering Class C airspace, you need to establish contact with approach control. Answer (8) is wrong because the tower sequences traffic for landing, but is not the facility to contact before entering Class C airspace. Answer (C) is not correct because flight service provides traffic advisories in an airport advisory area.
4-140. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-71 (FAR 91.157) The control tower is the ATC facility which issues a special VFR clearance.
4-141. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-75 (FAR 91.133) (AIM) Flight is allowed in restricted areas with the controlling agency's permission. ATC can authorize this if the airspace is joint use. Airways generally do not penetrate this airspace.
The Flight Environment
4-142 When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?
A -The airspace designation normally will not change. B -The airspace remains Class D airspace as long as a weather observer or automated weather system is available. C -The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.
4-143 With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include,
A -10,000 feet MSL. B -14,500 feet MSL. C -18,000 feet MSL.
4-144 Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the
A - NOTAMs. B - Airport/Facility Directory. C - Graphic Notices and Supplemental Data.
4-43
4-142. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-62 (AIM) Class D Airspace exists only when the control tower is operating. When the tower shuts down, you will normally continue to use the tower frequency as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF).
4-143. Answer C. GFDPPM 4-59 Unless otherwise indicated, E airspace begins at 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL and continues up to, but not including 18,000 MSL. Notice that the upper limit is defined by MSL, while the lower limit is typically defined by AGL.
4-144. Answer B. GFDPPM 4-78 (PHB) Established parachute sites will be listed in the Airport/Facility Directory. Frequently used sites will also be depicted on aeronautical charts and single events or infrequently used sites will be listed in NOTAMS. Use the Supplement for all Figures Specified in Test Take 154 question Test on Flight Environmental Last changed: 06/17/09 |
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