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Applying Human Factors Principles Additional Questions |
Communications and Flight Information5-1 No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding A - 6 calendar months. B - 12 calendar months. C - 24 calendar months. 5-1. Answer C. GFDPPM 5-4 (FAR 91.413) The transponder must have been tested and inspected within the preceding 24 calendar months.
5-3 Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning A - pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain or to an obstruction. B - nonessential information to reduce frequency congestion. C - noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas. 5-3. Answer C. GFDPPM 5-12 (AIM) ATIS is broadcast at certain busy airports, and provides noncontrol weather and runway information.
5-4 An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090°: "TRAFFIC 3 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, WESTBOUND..." Where should the pilot look for this traffic? A-East. B-South. C- West. 5-4. Answer B. GFDPPM 5-8 (AIM) Since the pilot is heading east, the 3 o'clock position is to the right, which is south.
5-5 An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 360°: "TRAFFIC 10 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND..." Where should the pilot look for this traffic? A - Northwest. B - Northeast. C - Southwest. 5-5. Answer A. GFDPPM 5-8 (AIM) Since the pilot's 12 o'clock position is north, the 10 o'clock position is northwest.
5-6 An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot during a local flight: "TRAFFIC 2 O'CLOCK, 5 MILES, NORTHBOUND..." Where should the pilot look for this traffic? A - Between directly ahead and 90° to the left. B - Between directly behind and 90° to the right. C - Between directly ahead and 90° to the right. 5-6. Answer C. GFDPPM 5-8 (AIM) Since the pilot's 12 o'clock is directly ahead, and 3 o'clock is 90° to the right, 2 o'clock is approximately 60° right. 5-7 An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying north in a calm wind: “TRAFFIC 9 O’CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTH-BOUND..." Where should the pilot look for this traffic? A-South. B-North. C- West. 5-7 Answer C. GFDPPM 5-8 (AIM) The Pilot’s 12 o’clock is north, so 9 o’clock is left, or west.
5-8 Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as A - mandatory radar service provided by the Automated Radar Terminal System (ARTS) program. B - safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft. C - wind-shear warning at participating airports. 5-8. Answer B. GFDPPM 5-10 (AIM) Basic radar service for VFR aircraft provides safe: alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring on workload-permitting basis. Unlike Class B and Class service, basic service is not mandatory for VFR aircraft Wind shear warning is NOT part of the basic radar se vice. Note: The terminology for radar service ha changed to Basic, TRSA, Class C, and Class B.
5-9 From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations? A - Clearance delivery. B - Ground control, on initial contact. C - Tower, just before takeoff. 5-9. Answer B. GFDPPM 5-10 (AIM) You should request radar traffic information by notifying ground control on initial contact with your request an proposed direction of flight. Clearance delivery is incorrect because normally, it only provides IFR clearance: and it may not be available at all airports. Requesting the service from the tower, just before takeoff, could delay either the departure or availability of the service Note: The terminology for radar service has changed 1 Basic, TRSA, Class C, and Class B.
5-10 TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provides A - sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft. B - IFR separation (l,000 feet vertical and 3 miles lateral) between all aircraft. C - warning to pilots when their aircraft are in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft. 5-10. Answer A. GFDPPM 5-10 (AIM) TRSA service provides separation between all participating VFR aircraft and all IFR aircraft operating in the TRSA. Pilot participation is urged but not mandatory.
5-11 When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes? A - 0700, 1700, 7000. B - 1200, 1500, 7000. C - 7500, 7600, 7700. 5-11. Answer C. GFDPPM 5-5 (AIM) You should avoid inadvertent selection of transponder codes which may set off false alarms at radar facilities These codes are: 7500 for hijacking, 7600 for radio communications failure, and 7700 for emergencies. 5-12 When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected? A-1200. B -7600. C-7700. 5-12. Answer A. GFDPPM 5-5 (AIM) The transponder code for VFR aircraft is 1200. Aircraft operating above 18,000 feet MSL are in Class A airspace and must have an IFR clearance. Answer (B) is wrong because 7600 is the code for radio failure. Answer (C) is wrong because 7700 is the code for emergencies.
5-13 Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a recreational pilot should squawk which VFR code? A-1200. B-7600. C-7700. 5-13. Answer A. GFDPPM 5-5 (AIM) See explanation for Question 5-12.
5-14 If Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code A-0000. B -1200. C-4096. 5-14. Answer B. GFDPPM 5-5 (AIM) Since you would then be operating under VFR, the transponder should be set to 1200. Answer (A) is not a designated VFR transponder code. Answer (C) is the number of discrete codes which are available on a four digit transponder with each digit starting at 0 and ending at 7.
5-15 (Refer to figure 53 on page 5-5.) Which type radar service is provided to VFR aircraft at Lincoln Municipal? A - Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and standard separation. B - Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and conflict resolution so that radar targets do not touch, or 1,000 feet vertical separation. C - Sequencing to the primary Class C airport, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts. 5-15. Answer C. GFDPPM 5-11 (AIM) The VFR services provided within a Class C airspace area (formerly ARSA) include: sequencing all arriving aircraft to the primary Class C airport; providing traffic advisories and conflict resolutions between IFR and VFR aircraft so that radar targets do not touch, or 500 feet vertical separation, and between VFR aircraft, traffic advisories and safety alerts.
5-15A When an air traffic controller issues radar traffic information in relation to the l2-hour clock, the reference the controller uses is the aircraft's A - true course. B - ground track. C - magnetic heading. 5-15A. Answer B. GFDPPM 5-8 (PHB) Controllers can see an aircraft's ground track on radar, but cannot factor in any crab angle applied for wind correction. Pilots should consider this when reacting to ATC traffic advisories.
5-15B Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS A – weather conditions are at or above VFR minimums. B – the sky condition is clear and visibility is unrestricted. C – the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more. 5-15B. Answer C. GFDPPM 5-12 (AIM) If the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more, reporting of the ceiling/sky condition, visibility, and obstructions to vision is optional.
5-15C As Pilot in Command of an aircraft, under which situation can you deviate from an ATC clearance? A - When operating in Class A airspace at night. B - If an ATC clearance is not understood and in VFR conditions. C - In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory. 5-15C. Answer C. GFDPPM 3-55 (AIM) Pilots who deviate for a resolution advisory must be responding to a TCAS II system. Those pilots must also report the deviation to ATC as soon as possible. Remember that there may be other reasons for deviating from and ATC clearance, since the PIC may deviate from any clearance if such action is necessary to ensure the safety of the flight.
5-16 A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot A - is cleared to land. B - should give way to other aircraft and continue circling. C - should return for landing. 5-16. Answer A. GFDPPM 5-31 (FAR 91.125) A steady green light while in flight means you are cleared to land. A steady red light would be used for answer (B). A flashing green light would be used for answer (C).
5-17 Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi? A - Flashing green. B - Steady green. C - Flashing white. 5-17. Answer A. GFDPPM 5-31 (FAR 91.125) While on the ground, a flashing green light means cleared to taxi. A steady green light (answer B) means cleared for takeoff. A flashing white light (answer C) means return to the aircraft's starting point on the airport.
5-18 If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be A - flashing red. B - steady red. C - alternating red and green. 5-18. Answer B. GFDPPM 5-31 (FAR 91.125) While in flight, a steady red light means give way and continue circling. A flashing red light (answer A) means that the airport is unsafe; do not land. An alternating red and green light (answer C) means to exercise extreme caution.
5-19 A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to A - taxi at a faster speed. B - taxi only on taxiways and not cross runways. e - return to the starting point on the airport. 5-19. Answer C. GFDPPM 5-31 (FAR 91.125) A flashing white light while operating on the ground means return to the starting point on the airport.
5-20 An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to A - hold position. B - exercise extreme caution. C - not land; the airport is unsafe. 5-20. Answer B. GFDPPM 5-31 (FAR 91.125) An alternating red and green signal means the same whether you are in flight or on the ground - exercise extreme caution.
5-21 While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red light followed by a flashing red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should A - discontinue the approach, fly the same traffic pattern and approach again, and land. B - exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing. C - abandon the approach, circle the airport to the right, and expect a flashing white light when the airport is safe for landing. 5-21. Answer B. GFDPPM 5-31 (FAR 91.125) An alternating red and green signal means exercise extreme caution. This is followed by a flashing red signal, which, in flight, means that the airport is unsafe.
5-22 (Refer to figure 28 on page 5-8.) An aircraft departs an airport in the eastern daylight time zone at 0945 EDT for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the central daylight time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time? A-1345Z. B -1445Z. C-1545Z. Should be 1645 5-22. Answer C. GFDPPM 5-23 (AIM) To convert the local departure time to UTC, add 4 hours (0945 + 4:00 := 1345). Two hours later is 1545Z.
5-23 (Refer to figure 28 on page 5-8) An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0930 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what time? A-0930MST. B-1030MST. C-1130MST. 5-23. Answer B. GFDPPM 5-23 (AIM) Add 2 hours to the 0930 departure time to find the arrival time of 1130 CST. Since Mountain time is 1 hour earlier than Central, subtract 1 hour, for a landing time of 1030 MST.
5-24 (Refer to figure 28 on page 5-8.) An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0845 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time? A-1345Z. B-1445Z. C-1645Z. 5-24. Answer C. GFDPPM 5-23 (AIM) Departure time (0845) plus 2 hours is 1045 CST. Convert CST to UTC by adding 6 hours, for a landing time of 1645Z. 5-25 (Refer to figure 28.) An aircraft departs an airport in the mountain standard time zone at 1615 MST for a 2hour IS-minute flight to an airport located in the Pacific standard time zone. The estimated time of arrival at the destination airport should be A-1630PST. B -1730 PST. C-1830PST. 5-25. Answer B. GFDPPM 5-23 (AIM) Add 2:15 to 1615 MST to find the arrival time of 1830 MST. Since Pacific time is one hour earlier than MST, the arrival time is 1730 PST.
5-26 (Refer to figure 28.) An aircraft departs an airport in the Pacific standard time zone at 1030 PST for a 4hour flight to an airport located in the central standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time? A-2030Z. B -2130Z. C-2230Z. 5-26. Answer C. GFDPPM 5-23 (AIM) Add 4 hours to 1030 PST to find the arrival time of 1430 PST. To convert PST to UTC, add 8 hours. The landing time is 2230Z. 5-27 (Refer to figure 28.) An aircraft departs an airport in the mountain standard time zone at 1515 MST for a 2hour 30-minute flight to an airport located in the Pacific standard time zone. What is the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport? A -1645 PST. B -1745 PST. C -1845 PST. 5-27. Answer A. GFDPPM 5-23 (AIM) Add 2:30 to 1515 MST to find the arrival time of 1745 MST. Convert MST to PST by subtracting 1 hour. The answer is 1645 PST.
5-28 (Refer to figure 21, area 3 on page 4-19.) What is the recommended communications procedure for a landing at Currituck County Airport? A - Transmit intentions on 122.9 MHz when 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern. B - Contact Elizabeth City FSS for airport advisory service. C - Contact New Bern FSS for area traffic information. 5-28. Answer A. GFDPPM 5-25 (AIM) The CTAF symbol is next to the frequency of 122.9. The normal procedure is to transmit intentions when 10 miles out and give position reports in the pattern. An FSS (answers B and C) provides airport advisory service only when located at airports without a tower. The flight service stations at Elizabeth City and New Bern do not provide airport advisory service for Currituck County.
5-29 (Refer to figure 27, area 2 on page 4-25.) What is the recommended communication procedure when inbound to land at Cooperstown Airport? A - Broadcast intentions when 10 miles out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz. B - Contact UNICOM when 10 miles out on 122.8 MHz. C - Circle the airport in a left turn prior to entering traffic. 5-29. Answer A. GFDPPM 5-25 (AIM) The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9, is depicted next to the CTAF symbol. Pilots should broadcast intentions on this frequency when 10 miles from the field. When a separate CTAF is listed, the UNICOM frequency (answer B) is used only for fuel and other requests, not traffic pattern calls. Answer (C) is wrong because when radios are available, you should make the standard calls prior to entering the traffic pattern.
5-30 When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester AFSS is A - "MC ALESTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER." B - "MC ALESTER STATION, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CEE BEE, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER." C - "MC ALESTER FLIGHT SERVICE STATION, HAWK NOVEMBER SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER." 5-30 Answer A. GFCPPM 5-21 (AIM) The callsign for a flight service station is its name, followed by the word “radio.” The aircraft’s full callsign should be given, using the phonetic alphabet. Answer (B) is wrong because the phonetic alphabet is not used (i.e., “CHARLIE BRAVO” versus “CEE BEE”). Answer (C) is wrong because the correct callsign is McAlester Radio, not McAlester Flight Service Station.
5-31 The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC IS A - "FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED." B - "FOUR POINT FIVE." C - "FORTY-FIVE HUNDRED FEET MSL." 5-31. Answer A. GFDPPM 5-22 (AIM) Altitudes should be stated as individual numbers with the word hundreds or thousands added as appropriate. In this case, 4,500 feet should be read as "FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED." 5-32 The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC IS A - "TEN THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED FEET." B - "TEN POINT FIVE." C - "ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED." 5-32. Answer C. GFDPPM 5-22 (AIM) See explanation for Question 5-31. In addition, for altitudes at and above 10,000 feet MSL, each digit of the thousands is pronounced, so that 10,500 becomes "ONE ZERO THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED."
5-33 Prior to entering an Airport Advisory Area, a pilot should A - monitor ATIS for weather and traffic advisories. B - contact approach control for vectors to the traffic pattern. C - contact the local FSS for airport and traffic advisories. 5-33. Answer C. GFDPPM 5-24 (AIM) A local nonautomated FSS provides airport and traffic advisories for an Airport Advisory Area. Answer (A) is wrong because an ATIS may not be available, and does not give traffic advisories. Answer (B) is wrong because, whether or not you receive assistance from approach control, you should contact the local FSS for airport and traffic advisories.
5-34 If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport? A - Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower. B - Enter a crosswind leg and rock the wings. C - Flash the landing lights and cycle the landing gear while circling the airport. 5-34. Answer A. GFDPPM 5-31 (AIM) To avoid conflicts and cause the least disruption in the traffic flow, determine the landing direction, and enter the pattern. Watch the tower for a light signal and acknowledge by rocking the wings. At night, acknowledge by flashing the landing or navigation lights. Answer (8) is wrong because this does not state that you have observed the traffic flow. In addition, a crosswind entry is not normal, and rocking the wings is done to acknowledge tower light signals. Answer (C) is wrong because flashing the lights is an acknowledgment of the tower light signals. Also, cycling the gear is not a signal, and you should stay outside or above the pattern instead of circling the airport when determining traffic flow.
5-35 After landing at a tower -controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control? A - When advised by the tower to do so. B - Prior to turning off the runway. C - After reaching a taxiway that leads directly to the parking area. 5-35. Answer A. GFDPPM 5-28 (AIM) The tower will normally instruct you to exit the runway and contact ground control. Answer (8) is wrong because you should exit the runway first. Answer (C) is wrong because the taxiway used to exit the runway may not lead directly to a parking area, and you must still receive a clearance from ground control to taxi.
5-36 If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed A - via taxiways and across runways to, but not onto, Runway 9. B - to the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required. C - via taxiways and across runways to Runway 9, where an immediate takeoff may be made. 5-36. Answer A. GFDPPM 5-27 (AIM) A clearance to taxi to a runway allows the pilot to proceed to that runway and cross any intersecting runways. Answer (B) is wrong because you do not have to hold at an intersecting runway and await clearance. Answer (C) is wrong because you have neither been cleared to taxi onto the runway or cleared for takeoff.
5-37 When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on A -118.0 and 118.8 MHz. B - 121.5 and 243.0 MHz. C - 123.0 and 119.0 MHz. 5-37. Answer B. GFDPPM 5-33 (AIM) The frequencies used for ELTs are the emergency frequencies of 121.5 MHz (VHF) and 243.0 MHz (UHF).
5-38 When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable) ? A - After one-half the battery's useful life. B - During each annual and 100-hour inspection. C - Every 24 calendar months. 5-38. Answer A. GFDPPM 5-34 (FAR 91.207) The ELT battery must be replaced or recharged after one-half the battery's useful life.
5-39 When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested? A- Anytime. B - At 15 and 45 minutes past the hour. C - During the first 5 minutes after the hour. 5-39. Answer C. GFDPPM 5-34 (AIM) To prevent false alerts, ELT testing should be conducted only during the first 5 minutes after any hour.
5-40 Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not been activated? A - Turn off the aircraft ELT after landing. B - Ask the airport tower if they are receiving an ELT signal. C - Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown. 5-40. Answer C. GFDPPM 5-34 (AIM) By monitoring 121.5, you will be able to hear the ELT signal if it has been activated.
5-41 An ATC clearance provides A - priority over all other traffic. B - adequate separation from all traffic. C - authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace. 5-41. Answer C. GFDPPM 5-26 (AIM) A clearance is authorization from ATC to operate under specific conditions in controlled airspace. It does not give a pilot priority over all other traffic (answer A), as other aircraft may also have an ATC clearance. While the purpose of a clearance is to provide separation from known traffic, it does not guarantee separation from unknown or nonparticipating aircraft (answer B).
5-42 (Refer to figure 53 on page 5-5.) When approaching Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose of landing, initial communications should be with A - Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz. B - Minneapolis Center on 128.75 MHz. C - Lincoln Tower on 118.5 MHz. 5-42. Answer A. GFDPPM 5-26 (AlFD) The communications section of the Airport/Facility Directory indicates that the airport is in Class C airspace (formerly ARSA), and that you should contact approach control. When west of the airport (170° 349°), the frequency to use is 124.0. To confirm that Lincoln Approach Control is operational at noon, check the hours of operation. These are listed as 1200 0600Z, which is 0600 - 2400 local standard time.Minneapolis Center (answer B) would be contacted between 0600 and 1200 Z, which is midnight to 6 A.M.local standard time. Contact should be made with approach control, where available, prior to contacting the tower (answer C).
5-43 (Refer to figure 53 on page 5-5.) What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at Lincoln Municipal during the hours when the tower is not in operation? A - Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz. B - Contact UNICOM on 122.95 MHz for traffic advisories. C - Monitor ATIS for airport conditions, then announce your position on 122.95 MHz. 5-43. Answer A. GFDPPM 5-23 (AlFD) The CTAF frequency is listed as 118.5, and is used when the tower is not in operation. Standard procedures are to monitor airport traffic and announce your position on CTAF. UNICOM (answers B and C) is not used for airport advisories when a CTAF is listed. It is a good idea to listen to ATIS, but it might not be updated after the tower closes.
5-43A As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of A-25 miles. B -20 miles. C -10 miles. 5-43A. Answer C. GFDPPM 5-25 (AIM) In addition to monitoring a CTAF within 10 miles when inbound or outbound from a non-towered airport, pilots should also make an initial call to announce their intention if they plan to land at the airport. They should then report on each leg of the pattern.
5-44. (Refer to figure 23, area 2 and legend 1 on pages 4-21 and 4-18.) For information about the parachute jumping and glider operations at Silverwood Airport, refer to A - notes on the border of the chart. B - the Airport/Facility Directory. C - the Notices to Airmen (NOTAM) publication. 5-44. Answer B. GFDPPM 5-39 (Chart Legend) The Airport/Facility Directory lists information on parachute jumping areas. This information is not found on the border of the chart (answer A) or in the NOTAM publication (answer C).
5-45 M52 FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by A - distribution from the nearest FAA district office. B - ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office. C - subscribing to the Federal Register. 5-45. Answer B. GFDPPM 5-46 (PHB) Advisory circulars may be ordered directly from the Government Printing Office. FAA district offices (answer A) do not stock advisory circulars for sale to the public. The Federal Register (answer e) contains notices of proposed rulemaking and final rules, but does not contain advisory circulars.
5-46 (Refer to figure 53 on page 5-5.) Where is Loup City Municipal located with relation to the city? A - Northeast approximately 3 miles. B - Northwest approximately 1 mile. C - East approximately 10 miles. 5-46. Answer B. GFDPPM 5-38 (A/FD) The first line of the A/FO includes the distance and direction from the associated city. The entry 1 NW indicates that the airport is 1 mile northwest of the city. The entry (NE03) is the location identifier, not a direction and distance (answer A). The last line of the A/FO entry contains the entry 2010/1 OE, which is the site elevation of the VORTAC, followed by the magnetic variation, not direction and distance (answer C). 5-47 (Refer to figure 53 on page 5-5.) Traffic patterns in effect at Lincoln Municipal are A - to the right on Runway 17L and Runway 35L; to the left on Runway l7R and Runway 35R. B - to the left on Runway l7L and Runway 35L; to the right on Runway l7R and Runway 35R. C - to the right on Runways 14 - 32. 5-47. Answer B. GFDPPM 5-38 (AlFD) Remarks following the runway data for each runway include nonstandard traffic patterns. Left-hand patterns are used if not otherwise stated. Right-hand traffic is noted for Runway 17R and Runway 35R. Left traffic is used for Runways 17L, 35L, 14, and 32.
5-49 FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number? A-60. B-70. C-90. 5-49. Answer A. GFDPPM 5-45 (AC 00-2) Advisory circulars relating to Airmen are issued under subject number 60. Airspace is covered under number 70 (answer B), and 90 covers Air Traffic Control and General Operating Rules (answer C).
5-50 FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number? A-60. B-70. C-90. 5-50. Answer B. GFDPPM 5-45 (AC 00-2) See explanation for Question 5-49.
5-51 FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which subject number? A-60. B-70. C-90. 5-51. Answer C. GFDPPM 5-45 (AC 00-2) See explanation for Question 5-49.
5-52 What information is contained in the Notices to Airman Publication (NTAP)? A - Current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMs. B - All Current NOTAMs. C - Current NOTAM (L) and FDC NOTAMs. 5-52. Answer A. AIM 5-1-3 The Notices to Airmen publication (NTAP) is issued every four weeks and includes NOTAM (D)s that are expected to remain in effect for an extended period and current FDC NOTAMs. Once published in the NTAP, this information will not be provided in a pilot weather briefing unless you specifically request it. Local (L) NOTAMs are not included in the NTAP unless they are considered important to flight safety. Data of a permanent nature is sometimes printed in Notices to Airmen as an interim step prior to publication in the appropriate aeronautical chart or Airport/Facility Directory. |
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