Applying Human Factors Principles
Additional Questions
Flight Aviation/Aircraft
Discovering Aviation
1-1 With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft?
A - Gyroplane, rotorcraft, airship, free balloon.
B - Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
C - Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.
1-1. Answer B. GFDPPM 1-18 (FAR 1.1) Airmen are certificated according to four categories of ~ aircraft: airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and Lighter-than-air.
Answers (A) and (C) are wrong because they list classes of pilot certification and not categories.
1·2 With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft?
A - Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
B - Single-engine land and sea, multi engine land and sea.
C - Lighter-than-air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon.
1-2. Answer B. GFDPPM 1-18 (FAR 1.1) Each category of aircraft is broken down into classes.
The airplane category is divided into single-engine land and sea, and multi-engine land and sea. Answer (A) is wrong because it lists aircraft categories. Answer (C) is wrong because Lighter-than-air is a category, not a class.
1·3 With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?
A - Normal, utility, acrobatic.
B - Airplane, rotorcraft, glider.
C - Landplane, seaplane.
1-3. Answer A. GFDPPM 1-20 (FAR 1.1) Normal, utility, and acrobatic are three of the categories under which aircraft are certified. Answer (8) lists aircraft classes, not categories. Answer (C) lists examples of airplane classes for pilot certification.
1·4 With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?
A - Normal, utility, acrobatic, limited.
B - Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.
C - Transport, restricted, provisional.
1-4. Answer B. GFDPPM 1-20 (FAR 1.1) Aircraft are placed into groups having similar means of propulsion, flight, or landing. These classes include: airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon, and powered-lift.
Answers (A) and (C) list aircraft categories, not classes.
Discovering Aviation
provide energy to the muscles. In addition, blood sugar, heart rate, respiration, blood pressure, and perspiration all increase. Stress can be caused by fatigue, and fatigue on its own can affect your ability to make timely and .... wise decisions.
DRUGS Whether the drug is alcohol, an illicit drug, or an over-the-counter medication, it may affect your ability to safely act as pilot-in-command. Depressants, such as cold medication and alcohol, slow reaction times and decrease your sense of responsibility. Stimulants, like caffeine and appetite suppressants, put you on edge and may cause you to make rash decisions. Hallucinogens, such as some illegal drugs, may have after-effects that last for days or weeks.
Consider carefully what the effects any drug you are taking will be on your piloting skill. If in doubt, consult an aviation medical examiner.
1-5 How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?
A - No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
B - No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action.
C - Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.
1-5. Answer A. GFDPPM 1-66 (FAR 91.15) According to 91.15, certificated pilots must provide a written report of each motor vehicle action to the FAA not later than 60 days after the action.
AIRPLANE SYSTEMS
SECTION A AIRPLANES
Although airplanes are designed for a variety of purposes, the basic components of most airplanes are essentially the same. Once the practical aspects of building an airworthy craft are resolved, what ultimately becomes the final model is largely a matter of the original design objectives and aesthetics. In a sense then, airplane design is a combination of art and science.
The aircraft is the composite of many parts. The airframe consists of the fuselage, wings, empennage, trim devices and landing gear. The engine and propeller provide the motion by which the airplane develops lift, and flies. The pilot's operating handbook (POH) is so vital that it is considered to be part of the airplane as well.
,
2-1 Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found?
A - On the Airworthiness Certificate.
B - In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
C - In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks.
2-1. Answer B. GFDPPM 2-10 (FAR 91.9) Operating limits can be found in any of these sources.
Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because limitations are not found on the Airworthiness Certificate or in the logbooks.
2-1A To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the
A - direction of motion of the aircraft parallel to the runway.
B - longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion.
C - downwind wing lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the aircraft to drift.
2-1A. Answer B. (AFH) Keeping the longitudinal axis parallel to the direction of motion ensures that the main gear will touchdown and roll as designed, parallel to the aircraft's direction of travel. Side loading the gear is not only bad for the aircraft structurally, but can result in the aircraft rolling away from the runway centerline on touchdown.
2-1B Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found if the aircraft has an Experimental or Special lightsport airworthiness certificate?
A - Attached to the Airworthiness Certificate.
B - In the current, FAA-approved flight manual.
C - In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks.
2-1B. Answer A. GFDPPM 2-10 (FAA Order 8130.2) Operating limitations for experimental aircraft are actually part of Form 8130-7, which is the special airworthiness certificate. As with all airworthiness certificates, this one must be carried in the aircraft, which ensures the operating limitations of an experimental or light sport aircraft are available to the PIC.
Airplane Systems
2-3
PROPELLERS ... The propellers found on single-engine aircraft can be divided, generally, into two basic types: fixed-pitch and constant-speed.
CONSTANT SPEED 24. The constant-speed propeller permits the pilot to select a blade angle for the most efficient performance.
25. Engine operation on an aircraft equipped with a constant-speed propeller is conducted with the throttle control ling power output, as registered on the manifold pressure gauge, and the propeller control regulating engine RPM.
26. When operating an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller, the pilot must avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.
2-2 Excessively high engine temperatures will
A - cause damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling fins.
B - cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
C - not appreciably affect an aircraft engine.
2-2. Answer S. GFDPPM 2-34 (PHS) High temperature can cause detonation and a resulting loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and engine damage, including scoring of the cylinders and damage to pistons, rings, and valves. Answer (A) is not the best answer, since engine damage and power loss are more critical. Answer (C) is wrong because engine damage can be serious.
2-3 If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with
A - the mixture set too rich.
B - higher-than-normal oil pressure.
C - too much power and with the mixture set too lean.
2-3. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-35 (PHS) With high power settings and the mixture set too lean, overheating can result. This can be indicated by a high engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature.
Answer (A) is wrong because when the mixture is too rich, temperatures are usually lower than normal.
Answer (B) is wrong because high oil pressure does not normally cause high temperatures. However, low oil levels can cause high oil temperatures
2-4 One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for
A - improved engine performance.
B - uniform heat distribution.
C - balanced cylinder head pressure.
2-4. Answer A. GFDPPM 2-24 (AFH) Dual ignition systems fire two spark plugs, which improves combustion of the fuel/air mixture and results in slightly more power. Answer (B) is incorrect because the ignition system does not affect heat distribution.
Answer (C) is wrong because the ignition system does not affect cylinder head pressure.
2-5 On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump used?
A - In the event engine-driven fuel pump fails.
B - All the time to aid the engine-driven fuel pump.
C - Constantly except in starting the engine.
2-5. Answer A. GFDPPM 2-27 (PHS) The auxiliary electric pump is a backup for an engine-driven pump. Although labeling, procedures for use, and control switches differ between manufacturers, these auxiliary pumps can cause operational problems if used inappropriately. In some systems, continuous use of both the auxiliary pump and the engine-driven pump can cause an excessively rich mixture. Besides the back-up function, auxiliary pumps are commonly used to provide fuel under pressure for engine starting.
2-4
2-6 The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the
A - automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude.
B - difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.
C - increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure.
2-6. Answer B. GFDPPM 2-18 (PHB) The decreased pressure caused by air flowing rapidly ~ through the venturi tube draws fuel from the float chamber. Answer (A) is wrong because air is not "metered" at the venturi. Answer (C) is not correct because the increased air velocity at the venturi throat causes a decrease in air pressure, not an increase.
2-7 The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to
A - decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air density.
B - decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.
C - increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air.
2-7. Answer B. GFDPPM 2-19 (AFH) If fuel flow is not decreased with altitude, the mixture becomes too rich with fuel. Therefore, the fuel mixture must be leaned to maintain the proper fuel/air ratio.
Answer (A) is wrong because air density is decreased with altitude, not increased. Answer (C) is incorrect because increasing the fuel mixture would further enrich the fuel/air mixture.
2-8 During the run-up at a high-elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action?
A - Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.
B - Taxi back to the flight line for a maintenance check.
C - Reduce manifold pressure to control detonation.
2-8. Answer A. GFDPPM 2-19 (AFH) In this case, engine roughness is probably caused by the mixture set too rich for the high altitude. When the carburetor heat is turned on, the warmer air entering the L carburetor is less dense, and the mixture is further ~ enriched. As a result, the engine roughness increases.
The problem can usually be corrected by leaning the mixture. Answer (8) is wrong because the pilot should first try the runup with a leaner mixture. Answer (C) is not correct because detonation is the result of a mixture that is too lean.
2-9 While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?
A - The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.
B - There will be more fuel in the cylinders than is needed for normal combustion, and the excess fuel will absorb heat and cool the engine.
C - The excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures and may cause detonation.
2-9. Answer A. GFDPPM 2-19 (AFH) With a decrease in altitude, air density increases. This means you will have to enrich the mixture as you descend, otherwise the fuel/air mixture can become excessively lean. Answers (8) and (C) are wrong because more air will enter the cylinders for the same amount of fuel, decreasing the fuel/air mixture, not increasing it.
2-10 Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?
A - Any temperature below freezing and a relative humidity of less than 50 percent.
B - Temperature between 32 and 500P and low humidity.
C - Temperature between 20 and 700P and high humidity.
2-10. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-20 (PHS) Carburetor icing is most likely between 20° and 70°F in high humidity conditions. Answers (A) and (8) are wrong because carburetor icing is less likely with low humidity.
2-11 The possibility of carburetor icing exists even when the ambient air temperature is as
A - high as 70°F and the relative humidity is high.
B - high as 95°F and there is visible moisture.
C - low as 0°F and the relative humidity is high.
2-11. Answer A. GFDPPM 2-20 (PHS) (A) is correct because carburetor icing is most probable between 20°F and 70°F with high humidity or visible moisture. Answer (8) is incorrect, because icing usually does not occur at temperatures above 70°F. Answer (C) is incorrect because the possibility of carburetor icing decreases below 32°F, and usually does not occur below 20°F.
2-12 If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be
A - a drop in oil temperature and cylinder head temperature.
B - engine roughness.
C - loss of RPM.
2-12. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-21 (PHS) The restricted airflow through the carburetor causes an enriched mixture and loss of RPM. Answer (A) is wrong because, while a drop in temperatures may result, they will not be the first indications of carburetor ice. Answer (8) is wrong because engine roughness may develop later, but will not be the first indication of carburetor ice.
2-13 Applying carburetor heat will
A - result in more air going through the carburetor.
B - enrich the fuel/air mixture.
C - not affect the fuel/air mixture.
2-13. Answer B. GFDPPM 2-20, 21 (PHS) When the carburetor heat is turned on, the warmer air entering the carburetor is less dense, and the mixture is enriched. Answer (A) is wrong because there is less air going through the carburetor. Answer (C) is not correct because the fuel/air mixture is enriched.
2-14 What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is applied?
A - A decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture.
B - The fuel/air mixture becomes richer.
C - The fuel/air mixture becomes leaner.
2-14. Answer S. GFDPPM 2-20, 21 (PHS) See explanation for Question 2-13. Answers (A) and (C) are wrong because the fuel/air mixture is not leaned.
2-15 Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to
A - decrease engine performance.
B - increase engine performance.
C - have no effect on engine performance.
2-15. Answer A. GFDPPM 2-21 (PHS) Since the warmer air entering the carburetor is less dense, the fuel/air mixture is enriched and power decreases. Answers (8) and (C) are wrong because performance decreases.
2-16 The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting
A - an increase in RPM and then a gradual decrease in RPM.
B - a decrease in RPM and then a constant RPM indication.
C - a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.
2-16. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-21 (PHS) When carburetor heat is first applied, the mixture is ~ enriched, and RPM decreases. Then, as the ice melts, Y airflow into the carburetor increases, leaning the mixture, and RPM increases. Answer (A) is wrong because it is the opposite of what happens. Answer (B) is wrong because if the RPM decreases, then remains constant, it means there was no ice in the carburetor.
2-17 With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be
A - more susceptible to icing.
B - equally susceptible to icing.
C - susceptible to icing only when visible moisture is present.
2-17. Answer A. GFDPPM 2-21 (PHS) Because fuel injection systems do not have a venturi throat, they are not as susceptible to icing as float-type carburetors. Answer (B) is wrong because the venturi throat makes float-type carburetors more susceptible to icing. Icing is possible when the humidity is high, regardless of whether visible moisture is present or not (answer C).
2-18 If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause
A - a mixture of fuel and air that is not uniform in all cylinders.
B -lower cylinder head temperatures.
C - detonation.
2-18. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-26 (PHS) The higher the grade of fuel, the more pressure it can withstand without detonating. Conversely, lower fuel grades are more prone to detonation. Answer (A) is wrong because the mixture should be the same in all fl cylinders, regardless of fuel grade. Answer (B) is not ~ correct because when detonation occurs, cylinder head temperatures increase.
2-19 Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when
A - the spark plugs are fouled or shorted out or the wiring is defective.
B - hot spots in the combustion chamber ignite the fuel/air mixture in advance of normal ignition.
C - the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.
2-19. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-25 (PHS) Detonation occurs when the fuel/air mixture suddenly explodes in the cylinders instead of burning smoothly.
Answer (A) describes conditions which would cause an engine to run rough, but not cause detonation. Answer (B) describes pre-ignition.
2-19A Detonation may occur at high-power settings when
A - the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly.
B - an excessively rich fuel mixture causes an explosive gain in power.
C - the fuel mixture is ignited too early by hot carbon deposits in the cylinder.
2-19A. Answer A. GFDPPM 2-25 (PHS) Detonation occurs when the fuel/air mixture suddenly explodes in the cylinders instead of burning smoothly.
Detonation is caused by excessively lean mixtures while hot spots in the cylinder describes pre-ignition.
2-20 If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to
A -lean the mixture.
B -lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed.
C - apply carburetor heat.
2-20. Answer B. GFDPPM 2-26 (PHB) Detonation can occur when the engine overheats. One action to help cool the engine is to increase airspeed, thus increasing the cooling airflow around the engine. Answer (A) is incorrect because detonation can result from a mixture that is too lean. Answer (C) is wrong because carburetor heat tends to increase engine temperature, making the problem worse.
2-21 The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as
A - combustion.
B - pre-ignition.
C - detonation.
2-21. Answer B. GFDPPM 2-26 (PHB) Pre-ignition occurs when the fuel/air mixture ignites too soon. Answer (A) is wrong because combustion is the normal burning of the mixture. Answer (C) is not right because detonation occurs when fuel explodes instead of burning smoothly.
2-22 Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges?
A - Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating.
B - Using fuel that has a higher-than-specified fuel rating.
C - Operating with higher-than-normal oil pressure.
2-22. Answer A. GFDPPM 2-30 (PHB) Lower grade fuels will detonate under less pressure.
Using a lower fuel rating than specified can cause excessive engine temperatures. Answer (8) is incorrect because using higher grade fuel does not normally cause excessive temperatures. A high oil pressure (answer C) may be an indication of a problem, but is not as likely to cause excessive temperatures as a lower-grade fuel.
2-23 What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?
A - The next higher octane aviation gas. B - The next lower octane aviation gas.
C - Unleaded automotive gas of the same octane rating.
2-23. Answer A. GFDPPM 2-30 (PHB) If the manufacturer's recommendations are followed, the next higher grade of fuel may normally be used.
Answer (8) is wrong because a lower grade of fuel can cause excessive engine temperatures. Answer (C) is incorrect because automotive gas is not normally recommended.
2-24 Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will
A - force any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines to the engine.
B - prevent expansion of the fuel by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
C - prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
2-24. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-29 (PHB) As the airplane cools overnight, water condenses in the tanks from vapor in the air and enters the fuel. Filling the tanks eliminates the air space and prevents condensation. Answer (A) is wrong because water is heavier than fuel and settles to the bottom of the tank. Answer (8) is wrong because fuel expands with increased temperatures. This is one reason vents are installed in fuel tanks.
2-25 For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are . especially dependent on
A - a properly functioning thermostat.
B - air flowing over the exhaust manifold.
C - the circulation of lubricating oil.
2-25. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-32 (PHB) Engine oil lubricates moving parts, reduces friction, and removes some of the heat from the cylinders. Answer (A) is wrong because reciprocating aircraft engines are not normally equipped with a thermostat. Outside air is important for engine cooling (answer 8), but the air is primarily directed to the hottest parts of the engine.
especially the cylinders.
2-26 An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by
A - the oil level being too low.
B - operating with a too high viscosity oil.
C - operating with an excessively rich mixture.
2-26. Answer A. GFDPPM 2-33 (PHS) If the oil level is too low, it can cause high engine oil temperatures. Answer (B) is incorrect because, while it is important to use the proper oil type and weight, it is not as likely to cause abnormally high temperatures as a low oil level would. Answer (C) is not correct because a rich mixture tends to cool the engine slightly instead of causing high temperatures.
2-27 What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?
A - Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.
B - Reduce climb speed and increase RPM.
C - Increase climb speed and increase RPM.
2-27. Answer A. GFDPPM 2-35 (PHS) Reducing the rate of climb and increasing airspeed will increase the cooling airflow around the engine. Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because increasing RPM increases temperature. Answer (B) is also incorrect because reducing the climb speed reduces the cooling airflow.
2-28 What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?
A - Enrichen the fuel mixture.
B - Increase the RPM.
C - Reduce the airspeed.
2-28. Answer A. GFDPPM 2-35 (PHS) A richer fuel mixture burns at a slightly lower temperature and helps cool the engine. Answer (B) is not right because a higher RPM causes higher engine temperatures. Answer (C) is wrong because a lower airspeed reduces the cooling airflow around the engine.
2-29 How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?
A - The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.
B - The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates a constant blade angle.
C - The throttle controls engine RPM as registered on the tachometer and the mixture control regulates the power output.
2-29. Answer A. GFDPPM 2-38 (PHS) The throttle controls the power output of the engine, I which is indicated on the manifold pressure gauge. The propeller control changes the pitch of the propeller blades, thus controlling engine RPM, which is indicated on the tachometer. Answer (B) is wrong because the propeller control does not maintain a constant blade angle. Rather, it varies pitch to maintain a constant speed. Answer (C) is wrong because the throttle does not directly control engine RPM, and the mixture control is not used to regulate power.
2-30 What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?
A - Permits the pilot to select and maintain a desired cruising speed.
B - Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.
C - Provides a smoother operation with stable RPM and eliminates vibrations.
2-30. Answer S. GFDPPM 2-38 (PHS) By selecting the proper blade angle, the pilot can convert a high percentage of engine power into thrust over a wide range of RPM and airspeed combinations. This allows the most efficient performance to be gained from the engine. Answer (A) is not correct because a constant-speed propeller is not necessary for maintaining a desired airspeed. Answer (C) is wrong because a constant-speed propeller is not necessarily smoother than a fixed-pitch propeller, nor does it operate with less vibration.
2-31 A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to
A - avoid high RPM settings with high manifold pressure.
B - avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.
e - always use a rich mixture with high RPM settings.
2-31. Answer B. GFDPPM 2-39 (PH B) For a given RPM setting, there is a maximum allowable manifold pressure. Generally, high manifold pressures with low RPM should be avoided to prevent internal stress within the engine. Answer (A) is incorrect because higher manifold pressures are allowable with higher RPM settings, within limits. Answer (C) is incorrect because the mixture should be leaned for optimum performance.
2-32 What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?
A - Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.
B - Place the magneto or ignition switch momentarily in the OFF position to check for proper groundmg.
e - Test each brake and the parking brake.
2-32. Answer A. GFDPPM 2-33 (PHB) Immediately after starting an engine, set the proper RPM and check engine gauges for proper indications.
Answers (B) and (C) are wrong because these items are not the first actions to be taken. Also, answer (B) may not be included in the airplane's checklist.
2-33 Should it become necessary to handprop an airplane engine, it is extremely important that a competent pilot
A - call "contact" before touching the propeller.
B - be at the controls in the cockpit.
e - be in the cockpit and call out all commands.
2-33. Answer B. GFDPPM 2-39 (PHB) When hand-propping an airplane, a competent pilot must be at the controls to prevent the airplane from moving and to set the engine controls properly. Answer (A) is not right because the person propping the engine does not have to be a pilot, nor do they have to call "contact." Answer (C) is wrong, since the pilot must be at the controls, not just in the cockpit, and the person hand-propping the engine is in charge of the starting procedure.
2-33A Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground, will
A - increase fuel consumption and may increase power due to the increased heat.
B - result in damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of cylinder cooling fans.
e - cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
2-33A. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-34 High temperatures can cause detonation and a resulting loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and engine damage, including scoring of the cylinders and damage to piston, rings, and valves. Answer (A) is wrong because engine damage can be serious. Answer (B) is not the best answer, since engine damage and power loss are more critical. To avoid excessive cylinder head temperatures, increase airspeed, enrich the mixture, and/or reduce power. Any of these procedures help in reducing the engine temperature.
2-10
2-33B To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the
A - fuel strainer drain.
B - lowest point in the fuel system.
C - fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.
Airplane Systems
2-33B. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-29 (PHB) When the fuel strainer is being drained, water in the ~, tank may not appear until all the fuel has been drained from the lines leading to the tank. Therefore, drain enough fuel from the fuel strainer to be certain that fuel is being drained from the tank. The amount will depend on the length of the fuel line from the tank to the drain.
Water may also remain in the fuel tank even after the fuel strainer has ceased to show any trace of water. This residual water can be removed only by draining the fuel tank sump drains.
2-34 Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed?
A-VA.
B-VLO.
C-VNE.
2-34. Answer A. GFDPPM 2-53 (FAR 1.2) VA is defined as the design maneuvering speed. Answer (B) represents maximum landing gear operating speed.
Answer (C) is the never exceed speed.
2-35 If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?
A - The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to mean sea level.
B - The elevation of the departure area.
C - Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
2-35. Answer B. GFDPPM 2-57 (FAR 91.121) If unable to obtain a local altimeter setting, you should set the altimeter to the field elevation prior to departure.
2-36 Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?
A - The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation.
B - The corrected density altitude of the departure airport.
C - The corrected pressure altitude for the departure airport.
2-36. Answer A. GFDPPM 2-57 (FAR 91.121) See explanation for Question 2-35.
2-37 If the pilot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?
A - The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.
B - The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
C - The altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.
2-37. Answer B. GFDPPM 2-61 (PHS) The altimeter, the airspeed indicator, and the vertical speed indicator all use static air and would therefore be affected. Answers (A) and (C) are wrong because the turn-and-slip indicator and attitude indicator do not rely on static air.
2-38 Which instrument will become inoperative if the pilot tube becomes clogged?
A - Altimeter.
B - Vertical speed.
C - Airspeed.
2-38. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-61 (PHS) The airspeed indicator operates by sensing ram air (impact pressure) in the pilot tube. Answers (A) and (B) are wrong because the altimeter and VSI use pressure readings from the static air ports.
2-39 Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged?
A - Airspeed only.
B - Altimeter only.
C - Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed.
2-39. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-61 (PHS) See explanation for Question 2-37.
2-40 (Refer to figure 3.) Altimeter 1 indicates
A - 500 feet.
B - 1,500 feet.
C - 10,500 feet.
2-40. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-55 (PHS) The small 1 0,000' pointer is just beyond the 1, indicating that the altitude is above 10,000 feet. The wide 1,000' pointer is between a and 1, which indicates less than 1,000 feet. Finally, the 100' pointer is on 5. The altimeter reading is 10,500 feet.
2-41 (Refer to figure 3.) Altimeter 2 indicates
A - 1,500 feet.
B - 4,500 feet.
C - 14,500 feet.
2-41. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-55 (PHS) The 10,000' pointer is above 1, the 1,000' pointer is above 4, and the 100' pointer is on 5. This indicates an altitude of 14,500 feet.
2-42 (Refer to figure 3.) Altimeter 3 indicates
A - 9,500 feet.
B - 10,950 feet.
C - 15,940 feet.
2-42. Answer A. GFDPPM 2-55 (PHS) The 10,000' pointer is near 1, the 1,000' pointer is above 9, and the 100' pointer is on 5. This indicates the altitude is 9,500 feet.
2-43 (Refer to figure 3.) Which altimeter(s) indicate(s) more than 10,000 feet?
A-1, 2, and 3.
B-1 and 2 only.
C- 1 only.
2-43. Answer B. GFDPPM 2-55 (PHS) See explanations for Questions 2-40, 2-41, and 2-42. Altimeter 1 indicates 10,500 feet, altimeter 2 indicates 14,500 feet, and the indication on altimeter 3 is 9,500 feet.
2-44 Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
A - calibrated altitude at field elevation.
B - absolute altitude at field elevation.
C - true altitude at field elevation.
2-44. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-57 (AW) When the current altimeter setting is set on the ground, the altimeter reads true altitude of the field, which is the actual height above mean sea level. Answer (A) is wrong because calibrated altitude is indicated altitude corrected for instrument error. Answer (B) is incorrect because absolute altitude is the actual height above the earth's surface, which would be zero at field elevation.
2-45 How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?
A - Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.
B - Higher temperatures expand the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is higher than true altitude.
C - Lower temperatures lower the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.
2-45. Answer A. GFDPPM 2-60 (PHS) Because atmospheric pressure levels are raised on warm days, the aircraft will be at a higher altitude than indicated. In other words, the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.
2-46 What is true altitude?
A - The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level.
B - The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
C - The height above the standard datum plane.
2-46. Answer A. GFDPPM 2-57 (PHS) True altitude is the actual height (vertical distance) above mean sea level. Answer (B) describes absolute altitude. Answer (C) describes pressure altitude.
2-47 What is absolute altitude?
A - The altitude read directly from the altimeter.
B - The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
C - The height above the standard datum plane.
2-47. Answer B. GFDPPM 2-58 (PHS) Absolute altitude is the height (vertical distance) above the surface. Answer (A) describes indicated altitude.
Answer (C) describes pressure altitude.
2-48 What is density altitude?
A - The height above the standard datum plane.
B - The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
C - The altitude read directly from the altimeter.
2-48. Answer B. GFDPPM 2-56 (PHS) Density altitude is found by applying a correction for nonstandard temperature to the pressure altitude.
Answer (A) is pressure altitude and (C) is indicated altitude.
2-49 What is pressure altitude?
A - The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error.
B - The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92.
C - The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure.
2-49. Answer B. GFDPPM 2-56 (PHS) Pressure altitude is the height above the standard datum plane when 29.92 is set in the scale. Answer (A) does not describe any type of altitude. Answer (C) describes density altitude.
2-50 Under what condition is indicted altitude the same as true altitude?
A - If the altimeter has no mechanical error.
B - When at sea level under standard conditions.
C - When at 18,000 feet MSL with the altimeter set at 29.92.
2-50. Answer B. GFDPPM 2-57 (AW) In this situation, both indicated and true altitude would be zero. Answers (A) and (C) are wrong because indicated altitude must be corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure.
2-51 If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs?
A - 70-foot increase in indicated altitude.
B - 70-foot increase in density altitude.
C - 700-foot increase in indicated altitude.
2-51. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-59 (PHS) A one inch change of Hg in the altimeter equals 1,000 feet of altitude change in the same direction. In this case, you increased the altimeter .7 of an inch (29.85 29.15 = .7), therefore, the indicated altitude increased 700 feet.
2-52 The pilot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?
A - Altimeter.
B - Vertical-speed indicator.
C - Airspeed indicator.
2-52. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-61 (PHS) The airspeed indicator senses impact pressure to provide an airspeed reading. Answers (A) and (B) are wrong because these instruments utilize only static air.
2-53 As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will
A - decrease as the true airspeed decreases.
B - decrease as the true airspeed increases.
C - remain the same regardless of altitude.
2-53. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-55 (PHS) Since airspeed indicators are calibrated to read true airspeed only under standard sea level conditions, the indicated airspeed does not reflect lower air density at higher altitudes. As a result, the indicated airspeed of a stall remains the same. Answers (A) and (B) are not correct because indicated airspeed does not change with an increase in altitude. Answer (A) is also incorrect because true airspeed increases with altitude.
2-54 What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?
A - Maneuvering speed.
B - Turbulence or rough-air speed.
C - Never-exceed speed.
2-54. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-53 (PHS) The red line is the never-exceed speed. Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because maneuvering, turbulent, or rough air speeds are not displayed on an airspeed indicator.
2-55 (Refer to figure 4 on page 2-17.) What is the full flap operating range for the airplane?
A - 60 to 100 MPH.
B - 60 to 208 MPH.
C - 65 to 165 MPH.
2-55. Answer A. GFDPPM 2-52 (PHS) The white arc indicates the flap operating range, which, in this case, is 60 to 100. (MPH is implied from the answers.)
2-56 (Refer to figure 4 on page 2-17.) What is the caution range of the airplane?
A-0 to 60 MPH.
B - 100 to 165 MPH.
C -165 to 208 MPH.
2-56. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-52 (PHS) The yellow arc indicates the caution range. For this aircraft, the caution range is 165 to 208. (MPH is implied from the answers.)
2-57 (Refer to figure 4 on page 2-17.) The maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air is
A-l00 MPH.
B-165MPH.
C-208MPH.
2-57. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-52 (PHS) In smooth air, an airplane can be operated in the yellow arc up to the red line, in this case, 208 MPH.
2-58 (Refer to figure 4 on page 2-17.) Which color identifies the never-exceed speed?
A - Lower limit of the yellow arc.
B - Upper limit of the white arc.
C - The red radial line.
2-58. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-52 (PHS) The red line is the never-exceed speed, the yellow arc is the caution range and the white arc is the flap operating range.
2-59 (Refer to figure 4 on page 2-17.) Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration?
A - Upper limit of the green arc.
B - Upper limit of the white arc.
C - Lower limit of the green arc.
2-59. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-52 (PHS) The lower limit of the green arc represents the power-off stall speed in a specified configuration (usually flaps up, gear retracted). Answer (A) is the maximum structural cruising speed. Answer (B) is the maximum speed with flaps extended.
2-60 (Refer to figure 4 on page 2-17.) What is the maximum flaps-extended speed?
A-65 MPH.
B -100 MPH.
C-165 MPH.
2-60. Answer B. GFDPPM 2-52 (PHS) This is represented by the upper limit of the white arc, which in this case is 100 MPH.
2-61 (Refer to figure 4.) Which color identifies the normal flap operating range?
A - The lower limit of the white arc to the upper limit of the green arc.
B - The green arc.
C - The white arc.
2-61. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-52 (PHS) The white arc indicates the normal flap operating range.
2-62 (Refer to figure 4.) Which color identifies the poweroff stalling speed with wing flaps and landing gear in the landing configuration?
A - Upper limit of the green arc.
B - Upper limit of the white arc.
C - Lower limit of the white arc.
2-62. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-52 (PHS) Stall speed with flaps and gear down is represented by the lower limit of the white arc. The upper limit of the green arc (answer A) is the maximum structural cruising speed, while the upper limit of the white arc (answer B) is the maximum flaps-extended speed.
2-63 (Refer to figure 4.) What is the maximum structural cruising speed?
A-100 MPH.
B -165 MPH.
C-208MPH.
2-63. Answer B. GFDPPM 2-52 (PHS) This speed is indicated by the upper limit of the green arc, which in this case is 165 MPH.
2-64 What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators?
A - Never-exceed speed.
B - Maximum structural cruising speed.
C - Maneuvering speed.
2-64. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-53 (PHS) The maneuvering speed of an airplane is not shown on the airspeed indicator. It can be found in the airplane manual or on placards. Answer (A) is not correct because this is indicated by the red radial line. Answer (B) is incorrect because this is indicated by the upper limit of the green arc.
2-65 (Refer to figure 5.) A turn coordinator provides an indication of the
A - movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axes.
B - angle of bank up to but not exceeding 30°.
C - attitude of the aircraft with reference to the longitudinal axis.
2-65. Answer A. GFDPPM 2-66 (PHS) The turn coordinator senses movement about the vertical axis (yaw) and the longitudinal axis (roll). Answers (B) and (C) are wrong because the miniature airplane indicates rate of turn, not angle of bank, which is the attitude of the aircraft in relation to the longitudinal axis.
2-66
Reserved
2-66. Reserved
2-67 (Refer to figure 7 on page 2-20.) The proper adjustment to make on the attitude indicator during level flight is to align the
A - horizon bar to the level-flight indication.
B - horizon bar to the miniature airplane.
C - miniature airplane to the horizon bar.
2-67. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-68 (PHS) The miniature airplane is adjustable and should be set to match the level flight indication of the horizon bar.
Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because the horizon bar is not adjustable, it moves only when the aircraft changes pitch.
2-68 (Refer to figure 7 on page 2-20.) How should a pilot determine the direction of bank from an attitude indicator such as the one illustrated?
A - By the direction of deflection of the banking scale (A).
B - By the direction of deflection of the horizon bar (B).
C - By the relationship of the miniature airplane (C) to the deflected horizon bar (B).
2-68. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-66 (PHB) As the airplane banks, the relationship between the miniature airplane and the horizon bar depict the direction of turn. Answer (A) is wrong because the bank scale does not deflect in the direction of bank. The combination of bank scale and pointer is used to determine bank angle only. Answer (8) is wrong because the horizon bar deflects opposite the miniature airplane; i.e., for a right turn, the horizon bar deflects to the left. (Note: Figure 7 is an example of an older style attitude indicator, not normally found in modern training airplanes.)
2-69 Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the
A - presence of flaws in the permanent magnets of the compass.
B - difference in the location between true north and magnetic north.
C - magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force.
2-69. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-71 (PHB) Metal and electronic components in the aircraft create magnetic fields which distort the lines of magnetic force.
This causes deviation errors in the compass readings. Answer (A) is wrong because deviation is not caused by flaws in the magnets. Answer (8) is incorrect because the difference between true and magnetic north is called variation, not deviation.
2-70 In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if
A - a left turn is entered from a north heading.
B - a right turn is entered from a north heading.
C - an aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading.
2-70. Answer B. GFDPPM 2-74 (PHB) When turning from a northerly heading, the compass initially indicates a turn in the opposite direction. When starting a right turn, toward the east, the compass begins to show a turn to the west. Answer (A) is wrong because a left turn, toward the west, would show an initial turn toward the east on the compass. Answer (C) is wrong because acceleration error does not occur when on a heading of north or south.
2-71 In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the east if
A - an aircraft is decelerated while on a south heading.
B - an aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading.
C - a left turn is entered from a north heading.
2-71. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-74 (PHS) See explanation for Question 2-70. In this question, during a left turn toward the west, the magnetic compass would initially indicate a turn to the east.
2-72 In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if
A - a right turn is entered from an east heading.
B - an aircraft is decelerated while on an east or west heading.
C - an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.
2-72. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-73 (PHS) Acceleration error is most pronounced on east/west headings. Using the acronym ANDS (Accelerate North, Decelerate - South), acceleration will show a turn to the north, and deceleration will show a turn to the south. Answers (A) and (B) are wrong because turning errors are not evident when beginning turns from an east or west heading.
2-73 In the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when
A - a left turn is entered from an east heading.
B - a right turn is entered from a west heading.
C - the aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading.
2-73. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-73 (PHS) See explanation for Question 2-72.
2-74 In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate
A - a turn momentarily.
B - correctly when on a north or south heading.
C - a turn toward the south.
2-74. Answer B. GFDPPM 2-73 (PHB) Since acceleration and deceleration errors are most pronounced on east/west headings, accelerating or decelerating on a north or south heading will not show much of an error on the magnetic compass.
2-75 During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate?
A - Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight.
B - As long as the airspeed is constant.
C - During turns if the bank does not exceed 18°.
2-75. Answer A. GFDPPM 2-74 (PHB) Magnetic dip causes turning and acceleration/deceleration errors. For this reason, magnetic compass indications are accurate only in straight-and-Level unaccelerated flight. Answer (8) is wrong because if the airspeed is constant in a turn, the compass will still show turning errors. Answer (C) is not right because errors will occur during turns regardless of bank angle.
2-76 If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is warmer than standard, the density altitude is
A - equal to pressure altitude.
B - lower than pressure altitude.
C - higher than pressure altitude.
2-76. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-56, 57 (PHB) When the OAT is warmer than standard, the density altitude (DA) is higher than pressure altitude. Answer (A) would be correct only when the OAT is equal to standard. Answer (8) would be correct when the OAT is lower than standard.
2-77 What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?
A - 15°C and 29.92 inches Hg.
B - 59°C and 1013.2 millibars.
C - 59°P and 29.92 millibars.
2-77. Answer A. GFDPPM 2-51 (PHB) The standard atmosphere is a temperature of 15°C (59°F) and 29.92" Hg (1013.2 millibars).
2-78 If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?
A - Altimeter will indicate .15 inches Hg higher.
B - Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher.
C - Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.
2-78. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-59 (PHB) Each .1" change on the altimeter setting equates to about 1 00 feet. In this case, the change is .15 lower, or 150 feet.
2-79 Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
A - When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92 inches Hg.
B - When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
C - When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude.
2-79. Answer B. GFDPPM 2-57 (AW) Pressure altitude equals true altitude when standard atmospheric conditions exist. When nonstandard conditions exist, true altitude will not equal pressure altitude. Answers (A) and (C) are wrong because they do not take into account temperatures that deviate from standard values.
2-80 Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?
A - At sea level, when the temperature is ODF.
B - When the altimeter has no installation error.
C - At standard temperature.
2-80. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-56 (PH B) Since density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature, DA and PA are equal only at standard temperature. Answer (A) is wrong because at sea level, standard temperature is 59DF. Answer (B) is incorrect because pressure altitude and density altitude are not dependent on an altimeter which provides indicated altitude.
2-81 If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
A - the actual altitude above sea level.
B - higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
C - lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
2-81. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-59 (AW) The aircraft will be at a higher true (actual) altitude above sea level than is indicated. In other words, the altimeter will indicate lower than the actual altitude. Answer (A) is wrong because the only time the altimeter indicates actual (true) altitude is when standard atmospheric conditions exist, and the correct altimeter setting is used. Answer (B) is not correct because the altimeter will indicate a lower, not higher, altitude than actual.
2-82 If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of lower pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
A - higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
B - lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
C - the actual altitude above sea level.
2-82. Answer A. GFDPPM 2-59 (AW) Remember, "from high to low, look out below." In other words, the aircraft will be at a lower true (actual) altitude than indicated, so the altimeter indicates higher than actual.
2-83 Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?
A - In colder than standard air temperature.
B - In warmer than standard air temperature.
C- When density altitude is higher than indicated altitude.
2-83. Answer A. GFDPPM 2-60 (AW) When the air is colder than standard, the aircraft's actual (true) altitude will be lower than indicated. Answer (8) is wrong because in warmer than standard conditions, true altitude will be higher than indicated. Answer (C) is wrong because there is not a direct correlation between density altitude and indicated altitude.
2-84 Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?
A - Air temperature lower than standard.
B - Atmospheric pressure lower than standard.
C - Air temperature warmer than standard.
2-84. Answer C. GFDPPM 2-60 (AW) See explanation for Question 2-83. In this question, the air temperature is warmer than standard, so indicated altitude will be lower than actual (true) altitude.
2-85 Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?
A - An increase in barometric pressure.
B - An increase in ambient temperature.
C - A decrease in relative humidity.
2-85. Answer B. GFDPPM 2-56 (AW) Since density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for temperature, it increases with increased temperature.
Answer (A) is wrong because an increase in barometric pressure lowers the pressure altitude. Thus, density altitude would also decrease. Answer (C) is wrong because density altitude would increase with an increase in relative humidity.
2-86 . The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is
A - magnetic deviation.
B - magnetic variation.
C - compass acceleration error
2-86. Answer B. GFDPPM 2-70,9-11 (PHB) Magnetic variation occurs because the earth's magnetic poles do not coincide with its geographic poles, and a magnetic compass aligns with the magnetic poles. You can determine local magnetic variation by referencing the isogonic lines on aeronautical charts, which are represented by dashed magenta lines.
2-87
(Reserved)
2-87. (Reserved)
2-88 What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
A - The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.
B - The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
C - The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the airplane.
2-88. Answer B. GFDPPM 2-74 (PHB) A turn from a southerly heading, results in a compass indication in the correct direction, but leading the actual heading. Various compass errors arise due to magnetic dip and from the compass counter weights added to offset dip.
2-89 When converting from true course to magnetic heading, a pilot should
A - subtract easterly variation and right wind correction angle.
B - add westerly variation and subtract left wind correction angle.
C - subtract westerly variation and add right wind correction angle.
2-89. Answer B. GFDPPM 2-70 (PHB) Remember, "East is least, West is best" to recall that easterly variation is subtracted and westerly is added. This calculation is often performed in conjunction with wind correction calculations using the formula:
TC ± WCA = TH ± VAR = MH ± DEV = CH.
When using the wind side of a flight computer, add wind correction if your wind dot is to the right of the centerline, and subtract if it's to the left. You can easily visualize this by remembering that compass headings decrease as you turn left, so a correction to the left requires that you subtract the correction angle.