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Applying Human Factors Principles Additional Questions |
Federal Aviation RegulationsFEDERAL AVIATION REGULATIONS 12-1 The definition of nighttime is A - sunset to sunrise. B - 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise. C - the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight. 12-1. Answer C. (FAR 1.1) Night is the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight. Answer (A) describes the time during which aircraft lights must be used according to FAR 91.209. Answer (B) reflects the night experience currency requirements found in FAR 61.57.
12-2 Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed? A-VFE. B-VLOF. C- VFC. 12-2. Answer A. (FAR 1.2) VFE is defined as maximum flap extended speed. Answer (B) represents lift-off speed. Answer (C) is used to describe maximum speed for stability characteristics.
12-3 Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed? A-VFE. B – VLO. C-VPE. 12-3. Answer A. (FAR 1.2) '" VLE is defined as maximum landing gear extended speed. Answer (B) is maximum landing gear operating speed. Answer (C) represents maximum flap extended speed.
12-4 VNO is defined as the A - normal operating range. B - never-exceed speed. C - maximum structural cruising speed. 12-4. Answer C. (FAR 1.2) VNO is defined as maximum structural cruising speed. Answer (A) is not defined by any V-speed. Answer (B), never-exceed speed, is represented by VNE.
12-5 VSO is defined as the A - stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration. B - stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration. C - stalling speed or minimum takeoff safety speed. 12-5. Answer A. (FAR 1.2) VSO is stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in a landing configuration. Answer (B) is represented by VS1' Answer (C) has two V-speeds. Stalling speed is Vs and minimum takeoff safety speed is V2 min.
12-6 Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance? A - Servicing landing gear wheel bearings. B - Alteration of main seat support brackets. C - Engine adjustments to allow automotive gas to be used. 12-6. Answer A. (FAR 1.1, FAR 43 - APPENDIX A) Preventive maintenance involves simple or minor preservation operations. Servicing landing gear is an example of preventive maintenance listed in FAR Part 43, Appendix A. Answers (B) and (C) are alterations, and are not listed in Appendix A.
12-7 Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance? A - Repair of landing gear brace struts. B - Replenishing hydraulic fluid. C - Repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional seams. 12-7. Answer B. (FAR 1.1, FAR 43 - APPENDIX A) Replenishing hydraulic fluid is listed as preventive maintenance in FAR Part 43, Appendix A. Answers (A) and (C) are not listed in Appendix A and they are considered as repair work.
12-8 What document(s) must be in our personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft? A - A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience. B - Certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current biennial flight review. C - An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required. 12-8. Answer C. (FAR 61.3) Both an appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate medical certificate if required, must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft in order to act as pilot in command of an aircraft. Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because there are no regulations requiring pilots to have proof of currency in their personal possession.
12-9 When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot's personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft? A - When acting as a crew chief during launch and recovery. B - Only when passengers are carried. C - Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember. 12-9. Answer C. (FAR 61.3) You must have a current pilot certificate in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft whenever you are pilot in command or acting as a required pilot flight crewmember. Answer (A) is incorrect because a crew chief is not a required pilot flight crewmember. Answer (B) is wrong because it makes no difference whether you are carrying passengers or not.
12-10 A recreational or private pilot acting as pilot in com1 mand, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight / crewmember, must have in his or her personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current A - endorsement on the pilot certificate to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished. B - medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate. C - logbook endorsement to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished. 12-10. Answer B. (FAR 61.3) You must have both the medical certificate if required, and the pilot certificate in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft. Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because you are not required to have proof of flight reviews in your personal possession.
12-11 Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator, the National Transportation Safety Board, or any A - authorized representative of the Department of Transportation. B - person in a position of authority. C - federal, state, or local law enforcement officer. 12-11. Answer C. (FAR 61.3) By regulation you, as the pilot, are required to present your pilot certificate upon request of the administrator, an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) or any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer. Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because a representative of the Department of Transportation or a person in a position of authority could mean someone other than an administrator, NTSB representative, or law enforcement officer.
12-12 A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 36year old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on A - August 10, 2 years later. B - August 31, 3 years later. C - August 31, 2 years later. 12-12. Answer B. (FAR 61.23) A third-class medical is good until the end of the 36th" calendar month after the date of examination, if under "age 40. Answer (A) is wrong because a medical certificate expires at the end of the month. Answer (C) is wrong because a third-class medical certificate for a pilot under age 40 is good for three years.
12-13 A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 51year old pilot on May 3, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on A - May 3, 1 year later. B - May 31, 1 year later. C - May 31, 2 years later. 12-13. Answer C. (FAR 61.23) A third-class medical is good until the end of the 24th calendar month after the date of examination, if age 40 and over. Answer (A) is wrong because a third-class medical expires at the end of the month and is good for more than one year. Answer (B) is wrong because a third-class medical certificate is good for two years, if age 40 and over.
12-14 For private pilot operations, a Second-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 42-year old pilot on July 15, this year, will expire at midnight on A - July 15, 2 years later. B - July 31,1 year later. C - July 31, 2 years later. 12-14. Answer C. (FAR 61.23) To exercise the privileges of a commercial pilot, a second-class medical is good until the end of the 12th calendar month after the date of examination. For private pilot operations, a second-class medical is good until the end of the 24th calendar month after the date of examination, if age 40 and over. Answer (A) is wrong because, a medical certificate expires at the end of the month. "Answer (B) is incorrect because a second-class medical certificate expires at the end of one year for commercial pilot operations, not private pilot operations.
12-15 For private pilot operations, a First-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 23-year old pilot on October 21, this year, will expire at midnight on A - October 21,2 years later. B - October 31, next year. C - October 31, 3 years later. 12-15. Answer C. (FAR 61.23) To exercise the privileges of an ATP, a first-class medical is good until the end of the 6th calendar month after the date of examination. Between the beginning of the 7th month and the end of the 12th month, the first-class medical carries 2nd class privileges. From the beginning of the 13th month to the end of the 36th calendar month if under age 40, a first-class medical is good only for operations requiring a 3rd class medical. Answer (A) is wrong because a medical certificate expires at the end of the month. Answer (B) is incorrect because a first-class medical expires at the end of six months for an ATP, one year for a commercial pilot, and two or three years for a private pilot.
12-16 The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft? A - Aircraft involved in ferry flights, training flights, or test flights. B - Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds. C - Aircraft operating under an authorization issued by the Administrator. 12-16. Answer B. (FAR 1.1,61.5, 61.31) FAR 61.31 indicates that a type rating is required for a large aircraft. FAR 1.1 defines large aircraft as having a gross weight greater than 12,500 pounds. Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because a type rating is not required for either kind of operation.
12-17 What is the definition of a high-performance airplane? A - An airplane with 180 horsepower, or retractable landing gear, flaps, and a fixed-pitch propeller. B - An airplane with a normal cruise speed in excess of 200 knots. C - An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower. 12-17. Answer C. (FAR 61.31) A high-performance airplane is defined as an airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower. Answer (A) is incorrect because it lists 180 horsepower as being high-performance. Answer (B) is incorrect because the definition of high-performance has nothing to do with a speed.
12-18 Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, that person must have A - passed a flight test in that airplane from an FAA inspector. B - an endorsement in that person's logbook that he or she is competent to act as pilot in command. C - received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook. 12-18 Answer C. (FAR 61.31) In order to act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, you must have received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook. Answer (A) is incorrect because a flight test is not required for a highperformance endorsement. Answer (B) is incomplete because it does not mention flight and ground instruction.
12-19 In order to act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, a pilot must have A - received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower. B - made and logged three solo takeoffs and landings in a high-performance airplane. C - passed a flight test in a high-performance airplane. 12-19. Answer A. (FAR 61.31) No person may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane (an airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower) unless that person has received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor in a high-performance airplane and received a one-time endorsement in that person's logbook showing proficiency. Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because there are no solo or flight test requirements for high-performance airplanes.
12-20 To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding A - 6 calendar months. B - 12 calendar months. C - 24 calendar months. 12-20. Answer C. (FAR 61.56) To act as pilot in command of any aircraft, whether you are carrying passengers or not, you must have, within the preceding 24 calendar months, complied with the flight review requirements. Answers (A) and (B) are the wrong time frames for flight review requirements.
12-21 If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is A-1829. B -1859. C -1929. 12-21. Answer C. (FAR 61.57) No person may act as pilot in command of an airCraft~ carrying passengers during the period beginning 1 hour · after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise, unless that person meets night experience requirements. Answers (A) and (B) are wrong because the times are less than one hour after sunset.
12-22 To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding A - 90 days. B - 12 calendar months. C - 24 calendar months. 12-22. Answer A. (FAR 61.57) To meet recent flight experience requirements for carrying passengers, the pilot in command must have, within the preceding 90 days, made three takeoffs and landings (to a full stop for night currency requirements). Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because they exceed the 90 day time period.
12-23 To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same A - make and model. B - category and class, but not type. C - category, class, and type, if a type rating is required. 12-23. Answer C. (FAR 61.57) To meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers, FAR 61.57(c) states that you must have made three takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same category and class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type. Answer (A) is wrong because make and model is more. restrictive than category and class. Answer (B) is incorrect because currency requirements must be met for each aircraft requiring a type rating.
12-24 The takeoffs and landings required to meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane A - may be touch and go or full stop. B - must be touch and go. C - must be to a full stop. 12-24. Answer C. (FAR 61.57) FAR 61.57(c) states that to meet the recency of experience requirement in a tailwheel airplane, the landings must have been made to a full stop. Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because a touch and go is not an option for meeting currency requirements in a tailwheel airplane.
12-25 The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from A - sunset to sunrise. B - 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise. C - the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight. 12-25. Answer B. (FAR 61.57) To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers between one-hour after sunset and one-hour before sunrise, the pilot must have, within the preceding 90 days, made three takeoffs and landings to a full stop. Answer (A) is not applicable because this is the time period when aircraft lights must be used. Answer (C) is wrong because this is the definition of night, not the time period in the recent flight experience regulation.
12-26 To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in A - the same category and class of aircraft to be used. B - the same type of aircraft to be used. C - any aircraft. 12-26. Answer A. (FAR 61.57) No person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers at night unless that person has made three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days. The takeoffs and landings must be at night and in the same category and class of aircraft that is to be used for the carriage of passengers.
12-27 If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only A - 30 days after the date of the move. B - 60 days after the date of the move. C - 90 days after the date of the move. 12-27. Answer A. (FAR 61.60) As a pilot, you may not exercise the privileges of your certificate after 30 days from the date of your permanent mailing address change unless you notify the FAA's Airman Certificate Branch in writing of the new address. Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because the time specified exceeds the 30 day limitation.
12-28 A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot's logbook a minimum of A - 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider. B - 200 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider. C - 100 hours of pilot flight time in any aircraft, that the pilot is using to tow a glider. 12-28. Answer A. (FAR 61.69) No person may act as pilot in command for towing a glider unless that person has logged at least 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider. Answer (B) is incorrect because the 200 hours of pilot-in-command time is a combination of powered and other-than-powered aircraft and is only required for a pilot who does not have at least 100 hours of pilot-incommand time in airplanes. Answer (C) is incorrect because the 100 hours must be flown in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required.
12-29 To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 12 months A - at least three flights in a powered glider. B - at least three flights as observer in a glider being towed by an aircraft. C - at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot. 12-29. Answer C. (FAR 61.69) The pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider must have, within the preceding 12 months, made at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot, or made at least three flights as PIC of a glider towed by an aircraft. Answer (A) is wrong because the requirement applies to a glider, not a powered glider. Answer (B) is incorrect because the requirement is for three flights as PIC in a glider, not as an observer.
12-30 A recreational pilot acting as pilot in command must have in his or her personal possession while aboard the aircraft A - a current logbook endorsement to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished. B - the pilot logbook to show recent experience requirements to serve as pilot in command have been met. C - a current logbook endorsement that permits flight within 50 nautical miles from the departure airport. 12-30. Answer C. (FAR 61.3) < A recreational pilot may act as pilot in command of an " aircraft on a flight that is within 50 nautical miles of the departure airport, provided that person has received a current logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor, and that endorsement is carried on the person's possession in the aircraft. Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because there are no regulatory requirements for pilots to have proof of currency in their personal possession.
12-31 A third-class medical certificate was issued to a 19year old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a recreational or private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will expire at midnight on A - August 31, 3 years later. B - August 31, 2 years later. C - August 10, 2 years later. 12-31. Answer A. (FAR 61.23) A third-class medical, which is appropriate to exercise the privileges of a recreational pilot or a private pilot, expires at the end of the 36th calendar month after the date of examination, if under the age of 40. Answer (B) is wrong because it indicates two years instead of three years. Answer (C) is incorrect because a medical certificate expires at the end of the month.
12-32 If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required? A - August 31, next year. B - August 8, 2 years later. C - August 31, 2 years later. 12-32. Answer C. (FAR 61.56) To act as pilot in command of an aircraft, a recreational or private pilot must have, within the preceding 24 cal- , endar months, complied with the biennial flight review (BFR) requirement. (Calendar month means the review is good until the end of the month in which it expires.) Answer (A) is wrong because there is no requirement for an annual (12 calendar months) flight review. Answer (B) is incorrect because that date is not the last day of the 24th month.
12-33 Each recreational or private pilot is required to have A - an annual flight review. B - a biennial flight review. C- a semiannual flight review. 12-33. Answer B. (FAR 61.56) In order for any pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft, that person must have, within the preceding 24 calendar months, complied with the biennial flight review (BFR) requirements. Answer (A) is wrong because an annual flight review is not required. Answer (C) is incorrect because semiannual means six months, not two years.
12-34 If a recreational or plivate pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required? A - August 31, 2 years later. B - August 31, 1 year later. C - August 8, next year. 12-34. Answer A. (FAR 61.56) To act as pilot in command of an aircraft, a recreational or private pilot must have, within the preceding 24 calendar months, complied with the biennial flight review (BFR) requirement. (Calendar month means the review is good until the end of the month in which it expires.) Answer (B) is wrong because there is no requirement for an annual (12 calendar months) flight review. Answer C (C) is incorrect because that date is neither the end of , the month nor is it the 24th month.
12-35 How many passengers is a recreational pilot allowed to carryon board? A-One. B-Two. C-Three. 12-35. Answer A. (FAR 61.101) According to the limitations specified in FAR 61.101 (a)(1), a recreational pilot may not carry more than one passenger. Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because they both exceed the passenger limit for recreational pilots.
12-36 According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a recreational pilot may A - not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight. B - be paid for the operating expenses of a flight. C - not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with a passenger. 12-36. Answer C. (FAR 61.101) A person who holds a recreational pilot certificate may not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with a passenger, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenses, or aircraft rental fees. Answer (A) is incorrect because it indicates that a recreational pilot cannot share operating expenses of a flight in any manner. Answer (8) is wrong because it indicates that the recreational pilot will be paid for all operating expenses and will not share in the cost.
12-37 In regard to privileges and limitations, a recreational pilot may A - not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with a passenger. B - fly for compensation or hire within 50 nautical miles from the departure airport with a logbook endorsement. C - not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight from a passenger. 12-37. Answer A. (FAR 61.101) A person who holds a recreational pilot certificate may not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with a passenger, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenses, or aircraft rental fees. Answer (8) is incorrect because a recreational pilot cannot fly for hire under any circumstances. Answer (C) is incorrect because it indicates that a recreational pilot cannot share the operating expenses of the flight.
12-38 When may a recreational pilot act as pilot in command on a cross-country flight that exceeds 50 nautical miles from the departure airport? A - After receiving ground and flight instructions on cross-country training and a logbook endorsement. B - After attaining 100 hours of pilot- in-command time and a logbook endorsement. C - 12 calendar months after receiving his or her recreational pilot certificate and a logbook endorsement. 12-38. Answer A. (FAR 61.101) A person who holds a recreational pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft on a flight that exceeds 50 nautical miles from the departure airport, provided that person has received ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on cross-country training and received a logbook endorsement which is carried on that person's possession in the aircraft. Answer (B) is wrong because the regulations do not specify 100 hours of pilot-in-command time as a requirement. Answer (C) is incorrect because the regulations do not specify a time period requirement such as 12 calendar months.
12-39 A recreational pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is certificated for a maximum of how many occupants? A-Three. B-Two. C-Four. 12-39. Answer C. (FAR 61.101) This regulation states that a recreational pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is certificated for more than four occupants. Answers (A) and (8) are wrong because they are less than the maximum occupancy limit for recreational pilots.
12·40 A recreational pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft with a maximum engine horsepower of A-160. B-180. C-200. 12-40. Answer B. (FAR 61.101) A recreational pilot may not act as pilot in command of ~ an aircraft that is certificated with more than 180 horsepower. Answer (A) is incorrect because it is less than the maximum horsepower limit for recreational pilots. Answer (C) is wrong because it exceeds the 180 maximum horsepower limit for recreational pilots.
12·41 What exception, if any, permits a recreational pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for hire? A - If the passenger pays no more than the operating expenses. B - If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight. C - There is no exception. 12-41. Answer C. (FAR 61.101) A recreational pilot may only share operating expenses with a passenger, there are no exceptions. Answer (A) is wrong because it implies that the passenger is permitted to pay all of the operating expenses. Answer (B) is incorrect because recreational pilots are specifically prohibited from being a participant in a passenger-carrying airlift sponsored by a charitable organization.
12·42 Maya recreational pilot act as pilot in command of an aircraft in furtherance of a business? A - Yes, if the flight is only incidental to that business. B - Yes, providing the aircraft does not carry a person or property for compensation or hire. C - No, it is not allowed. 12-42. Answer C. (FAR 61.101) The regulation specifically states that a recreational pilot is prohibited from flying in furtherance of a business. Answer (A) is incorrect because, even if the flight is incidental to business, it is still considered in the furtherance of business. Answer (B) is incorrect because, even if the flight is not conducted for compensation or hire, the intended purpose is still considered for the furtherance of business.
12·43 With respect to daylight hours, what is the earliest time a recreational pilot may take off? A - One hour before sunrise. B - At sunrise. C - At the beginning of morning civil twilight. 12·43. Answer B. (FAR 61.101) A recreational pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft between sunset and sunrise. Therefore the earliest takeoff time is sunrise. Answer (A) refers to night as defined for currency purposes under FAR 61.57. Answer (C) is also incorrect. It is part of the definition of night under FAR 1.1.
12·44 If sunset is 2021 and the end of evening civil twilight is 2043, when must a recreational pilot terminate the flight? A-2021. B-2043. C - 2121. 12-44. Answer A. (FAR 61.101) As indicated in the previous answer, a recreational pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft between sunset and sunrise. Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because both of these times are after 2021.
12-45 When may a recreational pilot operate to or from an airport that lies within Class C airspace? A - Anytime the control tower is in operation. B - When the ceiling is at least 1,000 feet and the surface visibility is at least 2 miles. C - For the purpose of obtaining an additional certificate or rating while under the supervision of an authorized flight instructor. 12-45. Answer C. (FAR 61.101) A recreational pilot may operate in airspace, such as Class C airspace, that requires communication with air traffic control only when such operations are conducted for the purpose of obtaining additional certificates or ratings. These operations must be under the supervision of an authorized flight instructor. Answer (A) is incorrect because it does not state that the operation is for the purpose of obtaining an additional certificate or rating. Answer (B) is incorrect because it implies that as long as visibility minimums are maintained, a recreational pilot may enter Class C airspace.
12-46 Under what conditions may a recreational pilot operate at an airport that lies within Class D airspace and that has a part-time control tower in operation? A - Any time when the tower is in operation, the ceiling is at least 3,000 feet, and the visibility is more than 1 mile. B - Between sunrise and sunset when the tower is in operation, the ceiling is at least 2,500 feet, and the visibility is at least 3 miles. C - Between sunrise and sunset when the tower is closed, the ceiling is at least 1,000 feet, and the visibility is at least 3 miles. 12-46. Answer C. (FAR 61.101, 91.155) A recreational pilot may not operate in airspace in which communications are required with ATC. An example is within Class D airspace. However, Class D airspace is only valid when the tower is operational. When the tower is closed, this airspace becomes Class E. If the ceiling is at least 1,000 feet AGL, and the visibility is at least three miles, a recreational pilot may legally operate at an airport in Class E airspace under visual flight rules (VFR). A recreational pilot is also limited to flight between sunrise and sunset. Answers (A) and (B) are wrong because the tower is operational, which makes the airspace Class D.
12-47 When may a recreational pilot fly above 10,000 feet MSL? A - When 2,000 feet AGL or below. B - When 2,500 feet AGL or below. C - When outside of controlled airspace. 12-47. Answer A. (FAR 61.101) A recreational pilot cannot fly above an altitude of 10,000 feet MSL, unless the aircraft is within 2,000 feet of the ground. Answer (8) is wrong because a recreational pilot may fly above 10,000 feet when at 2,000 feet AGL, or less, not 2,500 feet above the surface. Answer (C) is incorrect because whether the airspace is controlled or uncontrolled, a recreational pilot is not authorized to fly above 10,000 feet MSL unless the aircraft is within 2,000 feet AGL.
12-48 During daytime, what is the minimum flight or surface visibility required for recreational pilots in Class G airspace below 10,000 feet MSL? A-1 mile. B-3 miles. C - 5 miles. 12-48. Answer B. (FAR 61,101) A recreational pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft when the flight or surface visibility is less than three statute miles. Answer (A) is wrong; the minimum daytime visibility requirement is three statute miles, not one. Answer (C) is incorrect because the minimum daytime flight or surface visibility for a recreational pilot in either controlled or uncontrolled airspace is three, not five, statute miles.
12-49 During daytime, what is the minimum flight visibility required for recreational pilots in controlled airspace below 10,000 feet MSL? A- 1 mile. B-3 miles. C - 5 miles. 12-49. Answer B. (FAR 61.101) . This question and the answer choices are almost identi- ~ cal to the previous question (12-48). A recreational pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft when the flight or surlace visibility is less than three statute miles. Answer (A) is less than the recreational pilot's minimum and therefore is incorrect. Answer (C) is incorrect because it corresponds to either the visibility minimum above 10,000 MSL, or the night visibility minimum that applies to a student pilot.
12-50 Under what conditions, if any, may a recreational pilot demonstrate an aircraft in flight to a prospective buyer? A - The buyer pays all the operating expenses. B - The flight is not outside the United States. C - None. 12-50. Answer C. (FAR 61.101) FAR 61.101 (b)(12) specifically prohibits recreational pilots from demonstrating an aircraft in flight to prospective buyers. Answers (A) and (B) are obviously incorrect because there are no conditions under which a recreational pilot can demonstrate an aircraft, in flight, to a prospective buyer.
12-51 When, if ever, may a recreational pilot act as pilot in command in an aircraft towing a banner? A - If the pilot has logged 100 hours of flight time in powered aircraft. B - If the pilot has an endorsement in hislher pilot logbook from an authorized flight instructor. C - It is not allowed. 12-51. Answer C. (FAR 61.101) FAR 61.101 (b)(14) specifically prohibits recreational pilots from towing any object. Answers (A) and (B) are eliminated with selection of answer (C).
12-52 When must a recreational pilot have a pilot-in-command flight check? A - Every 400 hours. B - Every 180 days. C - If the pilot has less than 400 total flight hours and has not flown as pilot in command in an aircraft within the preceding 180 days. 12-52. Answer C. (FAR 61.101) A recreational pilot who has logged fewer than 400 flight hours and who has not logged pilot-in-command time in an aircraft within the preceding 180 days may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft until the pilot receives flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who certifies in the pilot's logbook that the recreational pilot is competent to act as pilot in command. Answers (A) and (B) are incomplete and incorrect.
12-53 When may a recreational pilot act as pilot in command of an aircraft at night? A - When obtaining an additional certificate or rating under the supervision of an authorized instructor, provided the surface or flight visibility is at least 1 statute mile. B - When obtaining an additional certificate or rating under the supervision of an authorized instructor, provided the surface or flight visibility is at least 3 statute miles. C - When obtaining an additional certificate or rating under the supervision of an authorized instructor, provided the surface or flight visibility is at least 5 statute miles. 12-53. Answer C. (FAR 61.101) A recreational pilot, working on a private pilot certificate, can fly at night under the supervision of an authorized instructor, just like a student pilot. The required nighttime visibility is five statute miles.
12-54 In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may A - not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight. B - not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees. C - act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for compensation if the flight is in connection with a business or employment. 12-54. Answer B. (FAR 61.113) A private pilot may not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees. Answer (A) is wrong because it says that a private pilot cannot share the operating expenses of the flight. Answer (C) is incorrect because when a private pilot receives compensation for a flight that is in connection with a business or employment, the flight must be incidental to that business and the aircraft must not carry any passengers or property for compensation or hire.
12-55 According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may A - not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees. B - not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight. C - be paid for the operating expenses of a flight if at least three takeoffs and three landings were made by the pilot within the preceding 90 days. 12-55. Answer A. (FAR 61.113) A private pilot may not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees. Answer (B) is wrong because it indicates that a private pilot cannot share the operating expenses of the flight. Answer (C) is incorrect because it indicates that the private pilot will be paid for all operating expenses and will not share in the cost.
12-56 What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight? A - If the passengers pay all the operating expenses. B - If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight. C - There is no exception. 12-56. Answer B. (FAR 61.113) Paragraph 61.113 of the FARs indicates a private pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft used in a passenger-carrying airlift sponsored by a charitable organization, and for which the passengers make a donation to the organization. Answer (A) is incorrect because it indicates that the private pilot will be paid for all operating expenses and will not share in the cost. Answer (C) is incorrect because it applies to recreational pilots.
12-57 What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD's)? A - For Informational purposes only. B - They are mandatory. C - They are voluntary. 12-57. Answer B. (FAR 39) ADs are published as part of the FARs. You may not operate an aircraft to which an airworthiness directive applies, except in accordance with that airworthiness directive.
12-58 Maya pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)? A - Yes, under VFR conditions only. B - Yes, AD's are only voluntary. C - Yes, if allowed by the AD. 12-58. Answer C. (FAR 39) ADs are published as part of the FARs. You may not operate an aircraft to which an airworthiness directive applies, except in accordance with that airworthiness directive.
12-59 Preventive maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required? A - A full, detailed description of the work done must be entered in the airframe logbook. B - The date the work was completed, and the name of the person who did the work must be entered in the airframe and engine logbook. C - The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records. 12-59. Answer C. (FAR 91.417, FAR Part 43.9) FAR 91.417 states that records of preventive maintenance must include a description of the work periormed, the date of completion, and the signature and certificate number of the person approving the aircraft for return to service. In addition, FAR 43.9 also indicates that the kind of certificate held by the person approving the work must be included in the record. Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because if there are separate logbooks for the engine, propeller, and airirame normally only that kind of work would be recorded in the appropriate logbook.
12-60 What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance? A -14 CFR Part 91.403. B - 14 CPR Part 43.7. C - 14 CFR Part 61.113. 12-60. Answer B. (FAR 43.7) 14 CFR Part 43 covers preventive maintenance. If you hold at least a private pilot certificate, you may periorm preventive maintenance such as replacing and servicing batteries, replacing spark plugs, servicing wheel bearings, etc.
12-61 Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service? A - Private or Commercial pilot. B - Student or Recreational pilot. C - None of the above. 12-61. Answer A. (FAR 43.7) 14 CFR Part 43 covers preventive maintenance. If you hold at least a private pilot certificate, you may periorm l preventive maintenance such as replacing and servic- "ing batteries, replacing spark plugs, servicing wheel bearings, etc.
12-62 The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the A - Federal Aviation Administration. B - pilot in command. C - aircraft manufacturer. 12-62. Answer B. (FAR 91.3) As clearly indicated in the regulation, the pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft. Therefore (B) is the only correct answer.
12-63 The person directly responsible for the pre-launch briefing of passengers for a flight is the A - safety officer. B - pilot in command. C - ground crewmember. 12-63. Answer B. (FAR 91.3) The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for operation of that aircraft. Therefore, the pilot in command is responsible for pre-launch passenger briefing on safety belts according to FAR 91.107, as well as other pertinent information. Answers (A) and (C) normally do not apply to private pilot operations.
12-64 If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may A - deviate from the FAR's to the extent required to meet the emergency, but must submit a written report to the Administrator within 24 hours. B - deviate from the FAR's to the extent required to meet that emergency. C - not deviate from the FAR's unless prior to the deviation approval is granted by the Administrator. 12-64. Answer B. (FAR 91.3) In an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action, the pilot in command may deviate from any rule to the extent required to meet that emergency. Answer (A) is incorrect because a written report is not required unless it is requested from the FAA. Answer (C) is incorrect because it is not practicable (if not impossible) to get prior permission to deviate from a FAR in an actual emergency situation.
12-65 When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator? A - Within 7 days. B - Within 10 days. C - Upon request. 12-65. Answer C. (FAR 91.3) The regulations clearly indicate that a written report is not required, unless a report is requested from the FAA. Answers (A) and (8) are incorrect because they indicate that a written report must automatically be submitted upon deviation of the FARs during an emergency.
12-66 Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight? A - A certificated aircraft mechanic. B - The pilot in command. C - The owner or operator. 12-66. Answer B. (FAR 91.7) The pilot in command of a civil aircraft is responsible, and has final authority, for determining whether that aircraft is in condition for safe flight. Answers (A) and (C) indicate that the pilot in command does not make the final determination.
12-67 Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft? A - Only in an emergency. B - If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface. C - If prior permission is received from the Federal Aviation Administration. 12-67. Answer B. (FAR 91.15) Objects can be dropped from an aircraft in flight, if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property. Answer (A) is incorrect because it indicates that objects are always prohibited from being dropped. Answer (C) is incorrect because there is no requirement for FAA notification.
12-68 A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A-8 hours. B -12 hours. C - 24 hours. 12-68. Answer A. (FAR 91.17) " A common saying used in aviation for this regulation is " "eight hours from bottle to throttle:' In other words, no person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft within eight hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage.
12-69 Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft? A - In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care. B - Only if the person does not have access to the cockpit or pilot's compartment. C - Under no condition. 12-69. Answer A. (FAR 91.17) Except in an emergency, no pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a person who appears to be intoxicated or who demonstrates by manner or physical indications that the individual is under the influence of drugs (except a patient under proper care) to be carried in that aircraft. Answer (B) is incorrect because there are no provisions for limiting passenger access to the cockpit. Answer (C) is incorrect because a person under medical care can be under the influence of drugs.
12-70 No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with A - .008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood. B -.004 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood. C - .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood. 12-70. Answer C. (FAR 91.17) No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft while having .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood. Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because the alcohol blood contents are far below the limit set by the regulations.
12-71 Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight? A - Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries. B - Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight. C - Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures. 12-71. Answer B. (FAR 91.103) Each pilot in command shall, before beginning a flight, become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. Answer (A) is incorrect because it addresses only the aircraft preflight inspection. Answer (C) is wrong because not all of the available information concerning the flight is utilized.
12-72 Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include A - the designation of an alternate airport. B - a study of arrival procedures at airports/heliports of intended use. C - an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned. 12-72. Answer C. (FAR 91.103) The preflight action for flights away from the vicinity of an airport include checking weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed as planned, and any known traffic delays. Answer (A) is incorrect because alternate airports are only a requirement for instrument flight rules. Answer (B) is not a specific requirement under FAR 91.103 and is incorrect because the pilot is not using all of the available information concerning the flight.
12-73 In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to A - review traffic control light signal procedures. B - check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT). C - determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data. 12-73. Answer C. (FAR 91.103) For any flight, a pilot must determine runway lengths at airports of use and the airplane's takeoff and landing distance data. Answers (A) and (B) are not specific to FAR 91.103.
12-74 Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during A - takeoffs and landings. B - all flight conditions. C - flight in turbulent air. 12-74. Answer A. (FAR 91.105) According to the regulation, safety belts are required during takeoff and landing and while enroute. In addition, shoulder harnesses are required during takeoff and landing, unless the seat of the crewmembers' stations are not equipped with shoulder harnesses, or the crewmembers are not able to periorm their duties with the shoulder harness fastened. Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because shoulder harnesses are only required during takeoff and landing.
12-75 Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened? A - Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing. B - Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and while en route. C - Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing. 12-75. Answer C. (FAR 91.105) During takeoff and landing, and while enroute, each required flight crewmember shall keep the safety belt fastened while at the crewmember station. In addition, each required flight crewmember shall, during takeoff and landing, keep the shoulder harness fastened while at the crewmember station. Answer (A) is wrong because safety belts are required while enroute. Answer (B) is incorrect because shoulder harnesses are not required while enroute.
12-76 With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts? A - The pilot in command must instruct the passengers to keep safety belts fastened for the entire flight. B - The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing. C - The pilot in command has no obligation in regard to passengers' use of safety belts. 12-76. Answer B. (FAR 91.107) The pilot in command must ensure that each person on board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten the safety belt and shoulder harness, as well as ensure all persons on board are notified to fasten their safety belt (and shoulder harness, if installed) during taxi, takeoff, or landing. Answer (A) is incorrect because safety restraints are only required for passengers during taxi, takeoff, and landings. Answer (C) is incorrect because FAR 91.107 specifically puts the responsibility and obligation on the pilot in command.
12-77 With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during A - taxi, takeoffs, and landings. B - all flight conditions. C - flight in turbulent air. 12-77. Answer A. (FAR 91.107) Passengers are only required to have safety belts (and shoulder harnesses, if installed) fastened during taxi, takeoff, and landing. Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect because safety restraints are not required at all times, nor are they required during turbulent air conditions.
12-78 Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when? A - Pilots only, during takeoffs and landings. B - Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only. C - Each person on board the aircraft during the entire flight. 12-78. Answer B. (FAR 91.107) Passengers are required to have safety belts (and shoulder harnesses, if installed) fastened during taxi, takeoff, and landing. Answer (A) is incorrect because pilots must wear restraints while en route and while at their stations. Answer (C) is incorrect because safety restraints are not required at all times for passengers or crewmembers when they are not at their station.
12-79 No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight A - over a densely populated area. B - in Class D airspace under special VFR. C - except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft. 12-79. Answer C. (FAR 91.111) No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation. Answers (A) and (8) are incorrect because there are no special restrictions concerning formation flight over densely populated areas or in Class 0 airspace.
12-80 A seaplane and a motorboat are crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right-of-way? A - The motorboat. B - The seaplane. C - Both should alter course to the right. 12-80. Answer B. (FAR 91.115) When an aircraft, or an aircraft and a vessel, are on crossing courses, the aircraft or vessel to the other's right has the right-of-way. Answer (A) is incorrect because the aircraft is to the right of the motorboat and has the right-of-way. Answer (C) is wrong because it applies only to vehicles approaching head on.
12-81 Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL? A - 200 knots. B - 250 knots. C - 288 knots. 12-81. Answer B. (FAR 91.117) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots. Answer (A) is incorrect because this airspeed limitation applies when operating below 2,500 feet above the surface when within four nautical miles of the primary airport of a Class C or 0 airspace area. It is also the airspeed limitation for operating within the airspace underlying a Class 8 airspace area, or in a VFR corridor designated through such a Class 8 airspace area. Answer (C) is incorrect because the correct answer is 288 mph not 288 knots.
12-82 Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within four nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is A - 200 knots. B - 230 knots. C - 250 knots. 12-82. Answer A. (FAR 91.117) The maximum indicated airspeed inside or within 4 n.m. of the primary airport in Class C airspace is 200 knots. Answer (B) is incorrect because this is the speed in miles per hour, not knots. Answer (C) is the allowable speed within Class 8, not C, airspace.
12-83 When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is A - 200 knots. B - 230 knots. C - 250 knots. 12-83. Answer A. (FAR 91.117) No person may operate an aircraft in the airspace underlying a Class 8 airspace area, or in a VFR corridor designated through a Class 8 airspace area, at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots. Answer (8) is wrong because the correct answer is 230 mph not 230 knots. Answer (C) is incorrect because this speed applies to either the speed restriction below 10,000 feet MSL, or the speed restriction for operations within a Class 8 airspace area.
12-84 When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is A -180 knots. B - 200 knots. C - 250 knots. 12-84. Answer B. (FAR 91.117) No person may operate an aircraft in a VFR corridor designated through a Class B airspace area, or in the airspace underlying a Class B airspace area, at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots. Answer (A) is wrong because 180 knots does not apply to any airspeed restriction. Answer (C) is incorrect because this speed applies to either the speed restriction below 10,000 feet MSL, or the speed restriction for operations within a Class B airspace area.
12-85 When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is A - when the clearance states "at pilot's discretion." B - an emergency. C - if the clearance contains a restriction. 12-85. Answer B. (FAR 91.123) According the FAR 91.23(a), when an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, except in an emergency, unless an amended clearance is obtained. Answer (A) is incorrect because "at pilot's discretion" means that the pilot must still comply with the clearance. Answer (C) is incorrect because a clearance restriction has no bearing on complying with ATC instructions.
12-86 When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance? A - When requested by ATC. B - Immediately. C - Within 7 days. 12-86. Answer A. (FAR 91.3, 91.123) According to FAR 91.123(d), a pilot in command who deviates from a clearance and then is given priority by ATC because of that emergency, shall submit a detailed report of that emergency within 48 hours to the manager of that ATC facility, if requested by ATC. Answer (B) is incorrect because you are allowed 48 hours to submit the report. Answer (C) is a specification found for reporting an overdue aircraft under NTSB 830.15(a).
12-87 What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority? A - Take no special action since you are pilot in command. B - File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested. C - File a report to the FAA Administrator, as soon as possible. 12-87. Answer B. (FAR 91.123) A pilot in command who is given priority by ATC because of an emergency, shall submit a detailed report of that emergency within 48 hours to the manager of that ATC facility, if requested by ATC. Answer (A) is incorrect because of the above reason. Answer (C) is incorrect because according to FAR 91.3, you must file a report with an FAA administrator (not ATC) when an FAR was violated, as a result of an emergency, and a report is requested from the administrator.
12-88 Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport? A - Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary. B - Make all turns to the left. C - Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established __ for the airport. 12-88. Answer C. (FAR 91.127) Each person operating an aircraft to or from an airport without an operating control tower shall, in the case of an aircraft departing the airport, comply with any traffic patterns established for that airport in Part 93. Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because they will not always comply with established traffic patterns.
12-89 What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane? A - Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions. B - Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed. C - Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. 12-89. Answer B. (FAR 91.151) For day VFR flight in an airplane, there must be enough l. fuel (considering wind and forecast weather conditions) "to fly to the first point of intended landing, and, assuming normal cruising speed, 30 minutes thereafter. Answer (A) is incorrect because the fuel required is based on forecasted weather, not adverse winds. Answer (C) is incorrect because it is based on night VFR.
12-90 What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane? A - Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions. B - Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed. C - Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. 12-90. Answer C. (FAR 91.151) For night VFR flight in an airplane, there must be enough fuel (considering wind and forecast weather conditions) to fly to the first point of intended landing, and assuming normal cruising speed, 45 minutes thereafter. Answer (A) is incorrect because the fuel required is based on forecasted weather, not adverse winds. Answer (B) is incorrect because it is based on day VFR.
12-91 What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for a recreational pilot in Class G airspace at 1,200 feet AGL or below during daylight hours? A - 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds. B-3 miles visibility and clear of clouds. C - 3 miles visibility, 500 feet below the clouds. 12-91. Answer B. (FAR 61.101, 91.155) VFR minimums for uncontrolled airspace at 1,200 feet l AGL, or below, is one mile visibility and clear of clouds. However, recreational pilots must have at least three miles visibility. Answer (A) is incorrect because it only applies to private, commercial, and ATP pilots. Answer (C) is incorrect because the aircraft only has to remain clear of clouds when within 1,200 feet AGL, or below, in uncontrolled airspace.
12-92 Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for a recreational pilot flying VFR above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is A - 1 mile. B-3 miles. C - 5 miles. 12-92. Answer B. (FAR 61.101,91.155) For recreational pilots, the visibility minimum below 10,000 feet MSL, is three miles. Answer (A) is wrong because it is the visibility minimum for uncontrolled airspace at or below 1,200 feet AGL and is not applicable to recreational pilots. Answer (C) is incorrect because it is the visibility minimum for airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and above 10,000 feet MSL.
12-93 In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight? A - Aircraft engine and airframe logbooks, and owner's manual. B - Radio operator's permit, and repair and alteration forms. C - Operating limitations and Registration Certificate. 12-93. Answer C. (FAR 91.9, 91.203) An acronym commonly used by pilots for remembering the required certificates and documents is ARROW. The ARROW acronym means AIRWORTHINESS certificate; aircraft REGISTRATION; RADIO station permit; Answer (A) is incorrect because engine and airframe logbooks are not required to be in the aircraft. Answer (B) is incorrect because repair and alteration forms are not required to be in the aircraft.
12-94 When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable? A - After any inadvertent activation of the ELT. B - When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour. C- When the ELT can no longer be heard over the airplane's communication radio receiver. 12-94. Answer B. (FAR 91.207) Batteries used in the emergency locator transmitters must be replaced (or recharged, if the battery is rechargeable) when the transmitter has been in use for more than one cumulative hour. Answer (A) is incorrect because the ELT can be reset after an inadvertent activation well before one cumulative hour has occurred. Answer (C) is incorrect because it is well past the one cumulative hour specification.
12-95 When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced? A - Every 24 months. B - When 50 percent of their useful life expires. C - The time of each 100-hour or annual inspection. 12-95. Answer B. (FAR 91.207) Non-rechargeable batteries used in the ELT must be replaced when 50 percent of their useful life, as established by the manufacturer, has expired. Answer (A) is incorrect because the useful half life of the ELT battery is not fixed, and it may vary from manufacturer to manufacturer. Answer (C) is wrong because a 1 OO-hour or annual inspection could occur well before or well after the time an ELT battery needs to be replaced or recharged.
12-96 Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft? A - End of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight. B - 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise. C- Sunset to sunrise. 12-96. Answer C. (FAR 91.209) No person may, during the period from sunset to sunrise, operate an aircraft unless it has lighted position lights. Answer (A) is wrong because it reflects the FAR 1.1 definition for night, which is used for logging time. Answer (B) is incorrect because it is the terminology used to define currency requirements for carrying passengers.
12-97 When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during A - the entire flight time at those altitudes. B - that flight time in excess of 10 minutes at those altitudes. C - that flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes. 12-97. Answer C. (FAR 91.211) Between cabin pressure altitudes of 12,500 feet MSL and 14,000 feet MSL, the required minimum flight crew is required to use supplemental oxygen for any duration of the flight past 30 minutes. Answers (A) and (B) greatly exceed the oxygen requirements.
12-98 Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of A - 12,500 feet MSL. B - 14,000 feet MSL. C - 15,000 feet MSL. 12-98. Answer C. (FAR 91.211) At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL, each occupant of the aircraft must be provided with supplemental oxygen. Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because at those altitudes, only required crewmembers must use oxygen for any portion of the flight past 30 minutes.
12-99 No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when A - flight visibility is less than 5 miles. B - over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement. C - less than 2,500 feet AGL. 12-99. Answer B. (FAR 91.303) No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement. Answer (A) is incorrect because the minimum visibility for acrobatic flight is three miles. Answer (C) is incorrect because minimum altitude above the ground for acrobatic flight is 1,500 feet AGL.
12-100 In which class of airspace is acrobatic flight prohibited? A - Class G airspace above 1,500 AGL. B - Class E airspace below 1,500 feet AGL. C - Class E airspace not designated for Federal Airways above 1,500 feet AGL. 12-100. Answer B. (FAR 91.303) No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight ~ within class B, C, or D airspace, class E airspace designated for an airport, or within 4 NM of the centerline of any Federal Airway. Acrobatic flight is also prohibited below 1,500 feet AGL and when the flight visibility is less than 3 statute miles. 12-101 What is the lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight? A - 1,000 feet AGL. B - 1,500 feet AGL. C - 2,000 feet AGL. 12-101. Answer B. (FAR 91.303) No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight below an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface.
12-102 No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when the flight visibility is less than A-3 miles. B - 5 miles. C -7 miles. 12-102. Answer A. (FAR 91.303) No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when flight visibility is less than three statute miles. Answers (B) and (C) are greater than the required minimum.
12-103 A chair-type parachute must have been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding A-60 days. B -90 days. C - 120 days. 12-103. Answer C. (FAR 91.307) No pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a parachute that is available for emergency use to be carried in that aircraft unless it is an approved type, and if a chair type (canopy. in back), it has been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding 120 days. Answers (A) and (B) are less than the required 120 days.
12-104 An approved chair-type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding A -120 days. B - 180 days. C - 365 days. 12-104. Answer A. (FAR 91.307) No pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a parachute that is available for emergency use to be carried in that aircraft unless it is an approved type, and if a chair type (canopy in back), it has been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding 120 days. Answers (B) and (C) are longer than the required maximum of 120 days.
12-105 With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute? A - When a door is removed from the aircraft to facilitate parachute jumpers. B - When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30° or more. C - When intentionally banking in excess of 30°. 12-105. Answer B. (FAR 91.307) Unless each occupant of the aircraft is wearing an approved parachute, no pilot of a civil aircraft, carrying any person (other than a crewmember) may execute any intentional maneuver that exceeds a nose-up or nose-down attitude of 30 degrees relative to the horizon.
12-106 Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft? A - Flight under instrument flight rules. B - Flight over a densely populated area. C - Flight within Class D airspace. 12-106. Answer B. (FAR 91.313) No person may operate a restricted category civil aircraft within the United States over a densely populated area. Answer (A) is incorrect because there currently are no restrictions for operating a restricted aircraft under IFA. Answer (C) is terminology found in the FAR regulating acrobatic flight and is not applicable to restricted category civil aircraft.
12-107 Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate A - beneath the floor of Class B airspace. B - over a densely populated area or in a congested airway. C - from the primary airport within Class D airspace. 12-107. Answer B. (FAR 91.319) Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator in special operating limitations, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate over a densely populated area or in a congested airway. Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because there are no restrictions specific to the airspace listed.
12-108 The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the A - pilot in command. B - owner or operator. C - mechanic who performs the work. 12-108. Answer B. (FAR 91.403) The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition. Answer (A) is incorrect because the pilot in command is only responSible for determining if the aircraft is in an airworthy condition. Answer (C) is incorrect because the certified mechanic is only responsible for the work he/she performs.
12-109 The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a preflight inspection and a A - statement from the owner or operator that the aircraft is airworthy. B - log book endorsement from a flight instructor. C - review of the maintenance records. 12-109. Answer C. (FAR 91.403) The maintenance records document whether all of the required inspections have been completed, and whether all of the airworthiness directives (ADs) have been complied with.
12-110 The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the A - owner or operator. B - pilot in command. C - mechanic who performed the work. 12-110. Answer A. (FAR 91.405) Each owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that maintenance personnel make appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance record. Answers (8) and (C) are incorrect because it is not the responsibility of the pilot in command or mechanic to make sure the appropriate entries have been made.
12-111 Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service? A - Owner or operator. B - Certified mechanic. C - Repair station. 12-111. Answer A. (FAR 91.405) Each owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that maintenance personnel make appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service.
12-112 Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (AD's) are complied with? A - Owner or operator. B - Repair station. C - Mechanic with inspection authorization (IA). 12-112. Answer A. (FAR 91.403) The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition, including compliance with 14 CFR Part 39 (ADs).
12-113 Completion of an annual inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by A - the relicensing date on the Registration Certificate. B - an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records. C - an inspection sticker placed on the instrument panel that lists the annual inspection completion date. 12-113. Answer B. (FAR 91.409) No person may operate an aircraft unless, within the preceding 12 calendar months it has had an annual inspection by a person authorized to do that type of inspection and is entered as an annual inspection in the required maintenance records. Answer (A) is incorrect because an annual is either entered in maintenance records, or in the issuance of an airworthiness certificate. Answer (C) is wrong because it does not meet the requirement for recording an annual inspection.
12-114 If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated A - by any private pilot. B - with passengers aboard. C - for compensation or hire. 12-114. Answer B. (FAR 91.407) Before any person (other than a crewmember) can fly in an aircraft that has been maintained, rebuilt, or altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics or substantially affected the operation in flight, an appropriately rated pilot with at least a private pilot certificate must first conduct a test flightand log the flight in aircraft records. Answer (A) is wrong because a , private pilot is a required crewmember. Answer (C) is , incorrect because flying the aircraft for compensation or hire may not involve carrying passengers.
12-115 Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately-rated pilot who holds at least a A - Commercial Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating. B - Private Pilot Certificate. C - Commercial Pilot Certificate and a mechanic's certificate. 12-115. Answer B. (FAR 91.407) An appropriately rated pilot with at least a private pilot certificate is authorized to flight test the aircraft. Answers (A) and (C) are incorrect because a commercial pilot with either an instrument rating or a mechanic rating is not the minimum requirement for the pilot.
12-116 An aircraft's annual condition inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than A - July 1, next year. B - July 13, next year. C - July 31, next year. 12-116. Answer C. (FAR 91.409) No person may operate an aircraft unless, within the preceding 12 calendar months, it has had an annual inspection. The term "calendar month" is defined as to the end of the month. Answer (A) is incorrect because it is less than 12 months. Answer (B) is incorrect because it is less than 12 calendar months.
12-117 To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the A - Airworthiness Certificate. B - Registration Certificate. C - aircraft maintenance records. 12-117. Answer C. (FAR 91.417) The registered owner or operator shall keep records of the maintenance, preventive maintenance, alterations, records of the 100-hour, annual, progressive, and other required or approved inspections, as appropriate, for each aircraft. This information is found in the aircraft's maintenance records. Answers (A) and (B) are incorrect because a record of maintenance is not kept on the airworthiness certificate or registration certificate.
12-118 What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction? A - Annual and 100-hour inspections. B - Biannual and 100-hour inspections. C - Annual and 50-hour inspections. 12-118. Answer A. (FAR 91.409) No person may operate an aircraft carrying any person (other than a crewmember) for hire, or give flight instruction for hire in an aircraft, which that person provides, unless within the preceding 100-hours of time in service, the aircraft has received an annual or 100-hour inspection. Answer (8) is incorrect because a biannual inspection is not in compliance with the annual inspection requirement. Answer (C) is incorrect because 50-hour inspections are not required for all rented aircraft.
12-119 An aircraft had a l00-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next lOO-hour inspection due? A -1349.6 hours. B -1359.6 hours. C - 1369.6 hours. 12-119. Answer B. (FAR 91.409) No person may operate an aircraft carrying any person (other than a crewmember) for hire, or give flight instruction for hire in an aircraft, which that person provides, unless within the preceding 1 OO-hours of time in service, the aircraft has received an annual or 100-hour inspection. Answer (A) is at 90 hours and is incorrect. Answer (C) is at 110 hours and is incorrect. An aircraft can go 10 hours over the 100 hour inspection as long as it is enroute to a place where the inspection can be done. If an aircraft does go over 100 hours, that time must be subtracted from the next 100 hours.
12-120 A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours on the tachometer. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due? A - 3312.5 hours. B - 3402.5 hours. C - 3409.5 hours. 12-120. Answer B. (FAR 91.409) The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours while enroute to reach a place where the inspection can be done. However, the excess time used to reach a place must be included in computing the next 100 hours of time in service. Answer (A) is incorrect because although an aircraft can go 10 hours over the 100 hour inspection, it is due at the 100 hour time. Answer (C) is incorrect because any time over 10 hours that is used to get an aircraft to a place of inspection, is counted against the next 100 hour inspection.
12-121 Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2006. The next inspection will be due no later than A - September 30, 2007. B - September 1, 2008. C - September 30, 2008. 12-121. Answer C. (FAR 91.413) No person may use an ATC transponder unless, within the preceding 24 calendar months, that transponder has been tested and found to comply with the appropriate standards listed in Appendix F of Part 43. The term "calendar month" is defined as to the end of the month.
12-122 Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive? A - Aircraft maintenance records. B - Airworthiness Certificate and Pilot's Operating Handbook. C - Airworthiness and Registration Certificates. 12-122. Answer A. (FAR 91.417) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall keep a record ( of current status of applicable airworthiness directives '(ADs) in the appropriate aircraft maintenance records. Answers (B) and (C) are not appropriate maintenance records.
12-123 All operations within Class C airspace must be in A - accordance with instrument flight rules. B - compliance with ATC clearances and instructions. C - an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability. 12-123. Answer C. (FAR 91.215, 91.130) All aircraft must have an altitude encoding transponder in order to operate within Class C airspace. Answer (B) is not entirely correct because the regulations state that in order to enter Class C airspace, all you need is twoway radio contact with ATC. However, per FAR 91.123, once you receive a clearance from ATC, you cannot deviate from that clearance except in an emergency. Answer (A) is not correct because an IFR clearance is not a requirement for operations within Class C airspace.
12-124 If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified A - immediately. B - within 48 hours. C - within 7 days. 12-124. Answer A. (NTSB 830.5) The operator of an aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest National Transportation Safety Board field office when an aircraft accident occurs. Answer (B) does not comply with notification requirements. Answer (C) is terminology found in NTSB 830.15 for filing reports and statements.
12-125 Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office? A - A forced landing due to engine failure. B - Landing gear damage, due to a hard landing. C - Flight control system malfunction or failure. 12-125. Answer C. (NTSB 830.5) The operator of an aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest National Transportation Safety Board field office when a flight control system malfunction or failure occurs. Answers (A) and (B) do not require immediate notification.
12-126 Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office? A - An in-flight generator/alternator failure. B - An in-flight fire. C - An in-flight loss of VOR receiver capability. 12-126. Answer B. (NTSB 830.5) The operator of an aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest National Transportation Safety Board field office when a fire in flight occurs. Answers (A) and (C) do not require immediate notification.
12-127 Which incident requires an immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office? A - An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident. B - An in-flight radio communications failure. C - An in-flight generator or alternator failure. 12-127. Answer A. (NTSB 830.5) The operator of an aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest National Transportation Safety Board field office when an overdue aircraft is believed to be involved in an accident. Answers (B) and (C) do not require immediate notification.
12-128 May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody? A - Yes, but only if moved by a federal, state, or local law enforcement officer. B - Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage. C - No, it may not be moved under any circumstances. 12-128. Answer B. (NTSB 830.10) Prior to the time the Board or its authorized representative takes custody of aircraft wreckage, mail, or cargo, such wreckage may not be disturbed or moved except to the extent necessary to protect the wreckage from further damage.
12-129 The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days? A-5. B-7. C-10. 12-129. Answer C. (NTSB 830.15) The operator of an aircraft shall file a report within 10 days after an accident, or after 7 days if an overdue aircraft is still missing. Answer (A) is less than the required 10 days. Answer (B) is wrong because it applies to aircraft that are overdue and still missing. 12-130 The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB A - within 7 days. B - within 10 days. C - when requested. 12-130. Answer C. (NTSB 830.15) A report on an incident for which notification is required by 830.5(a) shall be filed only when requested by an authorized representative of the Board.
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