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Applying Human Factors Principles Additional Questions |
Applying Human Factors PrinciplesApplying Human Factors Principles
10-1 What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A - Look only at far away, dim lights. B - Scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing. C - Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. 10-1. Answer B. GFDPPM 10-4 (AFH) The rods in the retina are used for night vision. Because they are not located directly behind the pupil, you must use off-center viewing. Also, in dim light, you might need to move your eyes more slowly to prevent blurring of images than during the day. Answer (A) is impractical since the eyes tend to focus on lights and could miss items of importance. Answer (C) is wrong because if the eye concentrates directly on an object for even a few seconds, the image on the retina begins to fade.
10-2 The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to A -look to the side of the object and scan slowly. B - scan the visual field very rapidly. C -look to the side of the object and scan rapidly. 10-2. Answer A. GFDPPM 10-4 (AFH) The most effective method of night scanning is to use off center vision, which means looking to the side of an object, and to scan slowly to prevent blurring. Rapid scanning (answer B) does not allow the image to focus clearly. Answer (C) is also wrong because scanning should be done slowly, not rapidly.
10-3 The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use A - regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-0' clock positions. B - a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 30-degree sector. C - peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing. 10-3. Answer C. GFDPPM 10-4 (FTH) As with the previous questions, scanning should be done slowly, in small sectors, using offcenter (peripheral) vision. Answer (A) is wrong because scanning should not be concentrated in a few specific areas. Both day and night scanning should be done in sectors of 10 degrees, not 30 degrees (answer B).
10-4 During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft? A - The other aircraft is crossing to the left. B - The other aircraft is crossing to the right. C - The other aircraft is approaching head-on. 10-4. Answer A. GFDPPM 10-5 (AFH) The steady red light is a position light on the left wing and the flashing red light is an anticollision beacon. If you are looking at the left wingtip, the other aircraft would be crossing to the left. If the other aircraft was crossing to the right (answer B), you would see a green light on the wingtip, not a red light. If the other aircraft was approaching head-on (answer C), you would see both red and green wingtip position lights.
10-5 During a night flight, you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft? A - The other aircraft is flying away from you. B - The other aircraft is crossing to the left. C - The other aircraft is crossing to the right. 10-5. Answer A. GFDPPM 10-5 (AFH) The white position light is on the tail and the flashing red light is the anticollision light. Therefore, you would be looking at the rear of the aircraft, which indicates it is flying away from you. If the aircraft was crossing to the left or to the right (answers B and C), you would be able to see either the steady red or green wingtip position light.
10-6 During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft? A - The other aircraft is crossing to the left. B - The other aircraft is flying away from you. C - The other aircraft is approaching head-on. 10-6. Answer C. GFDPPM 10-5 (AFH) In this case, you are seeing both wingtip lights. If there was no white taillight in between them, you would most likely be looking head-on at the aircraft. If the aircraft was crossing to the left (answer A), you would not be able to see the green light on the right wingtip. If the aircraft was flying away from you (answer B), you should be able to see a white tail light. Although the question does not mention which side each light is on, you could tell that an aircraft is approaching head-on if the red light is to your right and the green light is to your left.
10-7 VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished A - at a higher speed. B - with a steeper descent. C - the same as during daytime. 10-7. Answer C. GFDPPM 10-8 (AFH) You should try to make night VFR approaches the same as day approaches. Using a higher airspeed (answer A) could result in floating, while using a steeper descent (answer B) could make it difficult to judge altitude when it comes time to flare the airplane for landing.
10-8 Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result in A - tightness across the forehead. B - loss of muscular power. C - an increased sense of well-being. 10-8. Answer B. GFDPPM 10-15 (AC 20-32) The key word in this question is "large" accumulations. This condition can produce a loss of muscle power. Answers (A) and (C) describe symptoms of hypoxia.
10-9 Which statement best defines hypoxia? A - A state of oxygen deficiency in the body. B - An abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed. C - A condition of gas bubble formation around the joints or muscles. 10-9. Answer A. GFDPPM 10-13 (AIM) Hypoxia occurs when the body tissues do not receive enough oxygen. Answer (B) would occur during hyperventilation, when the breathing rate is too fast and too deep. Answer (C) describes decompression sickness, or the "bends," which can occur during and after scuba diving.
10-10 Rapid or extra deep breathing while using oxygen can cause a condition known as A - hyperventilation. B - aerosinusitis. C - aerotitis. 10-10. Answer A. GFDPPM 10-18 (AIM) Hyperventilation occurs when the breathing rate is too rapid or too deep. It can occur with or without the use of supplemental oxygen. Answer (B), aerosinusitis, is an inflammation of the sinuses. Answer (C), aerotitis, is an inflammation of the middle ear. Both are caused by changes in air pressure.
10-11 Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A - Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear. B - The excessive consumption of alcohol. C - An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. 10-11. Answer A. GFDPPM 10-18 (AIM) Emotional tension, anxiety, and fear can cause the rapid, deep breathing associated with hyperventilation. Excessive consumption of alcohol (answer B), does not cause hyperventilation. Answer (C) is wrong because a slow breathing rate is used to recover from hyperventilation. Also, hyperventilation is caused by insufficient carbon dioxide, not oxygen, in the body.
10-12 A pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of hyperventilation by A - closely monitoring the flight instruments to control the airplane. B - slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a bag, or talking aloud. C - increasing the breathing rate in order to increase lung ventilation. 10-12. Answer B. GFDPPM 10-18 (AIM) Slowing the breathing rate is one of the best ways to stop hyperventilation. Also, breathing into a bag and talking out loud are helpful. Answer (A) will not help control the breathing rate. Increasing the breathing rate (answer C) is a cause of hyperventilation, not a cure.
10-13 Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as A - altitude increases. B - altitude decreases. C - air pressure increases. 10-13. Answer A. GFDPPM 10-14,15 (AC 20-32) Since carbon monoxide poisoning is a form of hypoxia, its effects are increased with altitude, where there is less oxygen available. As altitude decreases (answer B), oxygen increases, and the effects of CO poisoning are decreased instead of increased. As altitude decreases, air pressure increases (answer C), and the effect is the same as in Answer (B).
10-14 What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying? A - Wear sunglasses after sunset until ready for flight. B - Avoid red lights at least 30 minutes before the flight. C - Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight. 10-14. Answer C. GFDPPM 10-5 (AIM) The rods in the human eye can take up to 30 minutes to fully adapt to the dark. Bright lights must be avoided for this amount of time. While sunglasses (answer A) can reduce light intensity, they are not as effective as simply avoiding bright lights for 30 minutes. Avoiding red lights (answer B) is not correct, since red cockpit lighting preserves night vision.
10-15 The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions may be reduced by A - shifting the eyes quickly between the exterior visual field and the instrument panel. B - having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs. C - leaning the body in the opposite direction of the motion of the aircraft. 10-15. Answer B. GFDPPM 10-9 (AIM) To avoid spatial disorientation, a pilot must rely on the instruments in the cockpit and not the feelings from the sensory organs. Answer (A) is wrong because when visual conditions are poor, scanning outside is not very effective. Shifting the eyes quickly will only add to spatial disorientation. Answer (C) is not a good option, as it would tend to increase spatial disorientation.
10-16 A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain by various sensory organs is defined as A - spatial disorientation. B - hyperventilation. C - hypoxia. 10-16. Answer A. GFDPPM 10-8 (AC 67-2) Spatial disorientation occurs when the brain receives conflicting messages from the sensory organs. Answer (B), hyperventilation, is a breathing rate that is too rapid or too deep. Answer (C), hypoxia, is a state of oxygen deficiency in the blood.
10-17 Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if A - they ignore the sensations of muscles and inner ear. B - body signals are used to interpret flight attitude. C - eyes are moved often in the process of crosschecking the flight instruments. 10-17. Answer B. GFDPPM 10-11 (AC 67-2) Spatial disorientation is more likely to occur when a pilot believes the signals from the body's sensory organs. Answer (A) is wrong because pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if they rely on the body's sensations. Answer (C), moving the eyes often, is wrong because the key is to focus on the instruments, rely on them, and avoid rapid head movements.
10-18 If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility condition, the best way to overcome the effect is to A - rely upon the aircraft instrument indications. B - concentrate on yaw, pitch, and roll sensations. C - consciously slow the breathing rate until symptoms clear and then resume normal breathing rate. 10-18. Answer A. GFDPPM 10-9 (AIM) Since the brain receives confusing messages from the body's senses, the pilot must rely on the aircraft's instruments. Concentrating on pitch, roll, and yaw sensations (answer B) will cause or increase spatial disorientation. Slowing the breathing rate (answer C) will reduce hyperventilation, but by itself will not overcome the effects of spatial disorientation.
10-19 What is it often called when a pilot pushes his or her capabilities and the aircraft's limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain in low visibility and ceiling? A - Scud running. B -Mind set. C - Peer pressure. 10-19. Answer A. (AC 60-22) Scud running is one of the operational pitfalls, describing a pilot that tries to maintain visual contact with the surface in low visibility and ceiling. Mind set is another operational pitfall that describes the inability to recognize and cope with changes in the situation different from those anticipated or planned. Peer pressure is an operational pitfall that describes poor decision making based upon emotional response to peers, rather than evaluating a situation objectively.
10-20 What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "Antiauthority"? A - Rules do not apply in this situation. B-I know what I am doing. C - Follow the rules. 10-20. Answer C. GFDPPM 10-30 (AC 60-22) The antidote for the hazardous attitude, "Antiauthority" is: Follow the rules, they are usually right. "Rules do not apply in this situation" and "I know what I am doing" are not antidotes to any of the hazardous attitudes.
10-21 What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "Impulsivity"? A - It could happen to me. B - Do it quickly to get it over with. C - Not so fast, think first. 10-21. Answer C. GFDPPM 10-30 (AC 60-22) The antidote for the hazardous attitude, "Impulsivity" is: Not so fast, think first. "It could happen to me" and "Do it quickly to get it over with" are not antidotes to any of the hazardous attitudes.
10-22 What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "Invulnerability"? A - It will not happen to me. B - It can not be that bad. C - It could happen to me. 10-22. Answer C. GFDPPM 10-30 (AC 60-22) The antidote for the hazardous attitude, "Invulnerability" is: It could happen to me. "It will not happen to me" and "It can not be that bad" are not antidotes to any of the hazardous attitudes.
10-23 What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "Macho"? A - I can do it. B - Taking chances is foolish. C - Nothing will happen. 10-23. Answer B. GFDPPM 10-30 (AC 60-22) The antidote for the hazardous attitude, "Macho" is: Taking chances is foolish. "I can do it" and "Nothing will happen" are not antidotes to any of the hazardous attitudes.
10-24 What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "Resignation"? A - What is the use. B - Someone else is responsible. C - I am not helpless. 10-24. Answer C. GFDPPM 10-30 (AC 60-22) The antidote for the hazardous attitude, "Resignation" is: I am not helpless. "What is the use" and "Someone else is responsible" are not antidotes to any of the hazardous attitudes.
10-25 Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight, even though he or she holds a current medical certificate? A-The FAA. B - The medical examiner. C - The pilot. 10-25. Answer C. GFDPPM 10-29 (AC 60-22) You, the pilot, are always responsible for determining if you are fit to fly for a particular flight. The FAA and medical examiners determine if you are fit to hold a medical certificate.
10-26 What is the one common factor which affects most preventable accidents? A - Structural failure. B - Mechanical malfunction. C - Human error. 10-26. Answer C. GFDPPM 10-27 (AC 60-22) Most preventable accidents have one common factor: human error rather than a mechanical malfunction or structural failure. According to NTSB statistics gathered from 1992 to 1996, the pilot was the general cause or a contributing factor in 49% of the accidents. Whereas the aircraft only accounted for 19% of the accidents.
10-27 What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying under Visual Flight Rules (VFR)? A - Continual flight into instrument conditions. B - Getting behind the aircraft. C - Duck-under syndrome. 10-27. Answer A. GFDPPM 10-27 (AC 60-22) Continuing flight under VFR into instrument conditions often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles. Getting behind the aircraft does not normally result in spatial disorientation or collision with the ground. Although duck-under syndrome often leads to impact with the ground, it normally does not result in spatial disorientation.
10-28 What is one of the neglected items when a pilot relies on short and long-term memory for repetitive tasks? A - Checklists. B - Situation awareness. C - Flying outside the envelope. 10-28. Answer A. (AC 60-22) Pilots that rely on their memory for repetitive tasks, do not normally use checklists.
10-29 Hazardous attitudes occur to every pilot to some degree at some time. What are some of these hazardous attitudes? A -Poor risk management and lack of stress management. B -Antiauthority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and invulnerability. C -Poor situational awareness, snap judgments, and lack of a decision making process. 10-29. Answer B. GFDPPM 10-30 (PHB) The commonly listed hazardous attitudes are antiauthority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and invulnerability. Each has its own "antidote" indicated below: Anti-authority – Follow the rules, they are usually right. Impulsivity- Not so fast. Think fast. Macho-taking chances is foolish Resignation-I’m not helpless. I can make a difference. Invulnerability – It could happen to me.
10-30 In the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, what is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude? A -Making a rational judgment. B -Recognizing hazardous thoughts. C -Recognizing the invulnerability of the situation. 10-30. Answer B. GFDPPM 10-29 (PH B) To prevent hazardous attitudes from endangering a flight, pilots must recognize a hazardous attitude, correctly label the thought, and recall its antidote.
10-31 Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight? A -Application of stress management and risk element procedures. B -Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment. C -The mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take. 10-31. Answer B. GFDPPM 10-36 (PHB) As defined by the FAA, Risk Management is the part of the decision making process which relies on situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment to reduce risks associated with each flight.
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