Question 1
The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to

a. decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.
b. decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air density.
c. increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air.

You answered "decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: " We adjust the fuel/air mixture at altitude by leaning ("decreasing the fuel flow") to compensate for decreased air density at altitude. " The "increased air density" answer is incorrect because, as we climb in the atmosphere, air density decreases, not increases. " The "increase the amount of fuel" answer is incorrect because, when we lean, we decrease, not increase, the amount of fuel in the mixture (were it possible to increase the amount of fuel, this incorrect answer would result in a very excessively rich mixture at altitude).


Question 2
When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)?

a. When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)?
b. Every 24 calendar months.
c. During each annual and 100-hour inspection.

You answered "When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)?".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: 14 CFR Part 91.207 states: Batteries used in the emergency locator transmitters required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section must be replaced (or recharged, if the batteries are rechargeable) - " When the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour; or " When 50 percent of their useful life (or, for rechargeable batteries, 50 percent of their useful life of charge) has expired, as established by the transmitter manufacturer under its approval.


Question 3
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is

a. 1,500 feet.
b. 500 feet.
c. 1,000 feet.

You answered "500 feet.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.155 requires the following weather for this operation: " Night: 3 Statute Miles Visibility " Night: Cloud clearance - 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal.


Question 4
(Refer to figure 41.) Determine the approximate ground roll distance required for takeoff. OAT 100 °F Pressure altitude 2,000 ft Takeoff weight 2,750 lb Headwind component Calm

a. 1,300 feet.
b. 1,800 feet.
c. 1,150 feet.

You answered "1,150 feet.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: 1. Enter the chart from the bottom at 100 degrees F, read up (red line) to the 2000ft line. 2. Go right (blue line) to the reference line. 3. Parallel the lines (along the green line) down to where the 2,750lb (red) line intersects4. Wind is calm so keep on going until you intersect the 3rd reference line 5. From the reference line for obstacle height, keep going right (green line) read 1150'.


Question 5
TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provides

a. IFR separation (1,000 feet vertical and 3 miles lateral) between all aircraft.
b. sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft.
c. warning to pilots when their aircraft are in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft.

You answered "sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: TRSA service provides separation between all participating VFR aircraft and all IFR aircraft operating in the TRSA. Pilot participation is urged but not mandatory - Your choice would require mandatory participation by VFR aircraft. This is outlined in 5-10 of the AIM. The image below shows a TRSA on a sectional chart. It is indicated by thick black lines. This one here has two parts - a core where the TRSA is from the surface to 8000' AGL and a shelf area where it is from 2000' to 8000' AGL.Please note that TRSAs are somewhat a relic of the old airspace classification system that was in use some years ago. Many suspect that TRSAs may become fewer and fewer with time and at some point they may be removed from sectional charts altogether.


Question 6
Which statement relates to Bernoulli`s principle?

a. For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
b. An additional upward force is generated as the lower surface of the wing deflects air downward.
c. Air traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface.


The correct answer is: Air traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface

Reference: AC 61-23C, Chapter 1 states: Relationship Between Angle of Attack and Lift As stated previously, the angle of attack is the acute angle between the relative wind and the chord line of the wing. At small angles of attack, most of the wing lift is a result of the difference in pressure between the upper and lower surfaces of the wing (Bernoulli's Principle). Additional lift is generated by the equal and opposite reaction of the airstream being deflected downward from the wing (Newton's Law). As the angle of attack is increased, the airstream is forced to travel faster because of the greater distance over the upper surface of the wing, creating a greater pressure differential between the upper and lower surfaces. At the same time, the airstream is deflected downward at a greater angle, causing an increased opposite reaction. Both the increased pressure differential and increased opposite reaction increase lift and also drag. Therefore as angle of attack is increased, lift is increased up to the critical angle of attack.


Question 7
What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?

a. An unstable layer of air.
b. Chinook winds on mountain slopes.
c. A stable layer of air.

You answered "A stable layer of air.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-6, chapter 6 states: If the temperature increases with altitude through a layer - an inversion - the layer is stable and convection is suppressed. Air may be unstable beneath the inversion.


Question 8
Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged?

a. Vertical speed.
b. Altimeter.
c. Airspeed.

You answered "Airspeed.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The pitot tube supplies ram (dynamic + static) air pressure for the airspeed indicator. The airspeed indicator effectively subtracts the reading of the static port (static air pressure) from the ram air pressure reading of the pitot tube to determine net dynamic air pressure, which it then displays as airspeed.


Question 9
What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?

a. The movement of cold air over much warmer water.
b. Moist, tropical air moving over cold, offshore water.
c. Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights.

You answered "Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-6A, Chapter 12 states:Conditions favorable for radiation fog are clear sky, little or no wind, and small temperature-dew point spread (high relative humidity). The fog forms almost exclusively at night or near daybreak. Terrestrial radiation cools the ground; in turn, the cool ground cools the air in contact with it. When the air is cooled to its dew point, fog forms. When rain soaks the ground, followed by clearing skies, radiation fog is not uncommon the following morning. Radiation fog is restricted to land because water surfaces cool little from nighttime radiation. It is shallow when wind is calm. Winds up to about 5 knots mix the air slightly and tend to deepen the fog by spreading the cooling through a deeper layer. Stronger winds disperse the fog or mix the air through a still deeper layer with stratus clouds forming at the top of the mixing layer.


Question 10
Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?

a. Any temperature below freezing and a relative humidity of less than 50 percent.
b. Temperature between 32 and 50 °F and low humidity.
c. Temperature between 20 and 70 °F and high humidity.

You answered "Temperature between 20 and 70 °F and high humidity.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Carburetor icing can and will form especially when the temperatures are between 20 and 70 degrees Fahrenheit and there is high humidity. Humidity implies the presence of water, which is necessary for ice to form. That relatively high humidity is necessary for ice to form is good cause as to why the other two answers are incorrect. The other is the somewhat shocking fact that carburetor icing can occur on a relatively warm spring or summer day when the temperature is quite high.


Question 11
(Refer to figure 26, area 2.) The floor of Class B airspace at Addison Airport is

a. 3,100 feet MSL.
b. at the surface.
c. 3,000 feet MSL.

You answered "3,000 feet MSL.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Approximately 15 NM northwest of the Addison airport, you see the blue symbol 110/30. This indicates the upper and lower limits of the Class B airspace in that sector. In this case the floor of the airspace is 3,000 MSL.


Question 12
The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft?

a. Aircraft operated under an authorization issued by the Administrator.
b. Aircraft involved in ferry flights, training flights, or test flights.
c. Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.

You answered "Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Directly from the FARs (61.31): Type ratings required. A person who acts as a pilot in command of any of the following aircraft must hold a type rating for that aircraft: 1. Large aircraft (except lighter-than-air). 2. Turbojet-powered airplanes. 3. Other aircraft specified by the Administrator through aircraft type certificate procedures. From just this information, it might not be immediately clear what the correct answer is, so let's go through the process of elimination. The quoted regulation says nothing about ' an aircraft operated under an authorization issued by the Administrator.' Heck, that would mean you'd need a type-rating for practically every aircraft you flew. Similarly, the regulation mentions nothing about ferry, training, or test flights. It does mention "large aircraft." As it turns out, to the FAA, "large aircraft" means having a gross weight of over 12,500 pounds. Even if you did not know that, you still should be able to make a good guess at the correct answer by eliminating the obviously wrong ones. Remember that you need a type rating to fly a 747.


Question 13
When may hazardous wind shear be expected?

a. In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence.
b. Following frontal passage when stratocumulus clouds form indicating mechanical mixing.
c. When stable air crosses a mountain barrier where it tends to flow in layers forming lenticular clouds.

You answered "In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-6A Chapter 9 discusses turbulence:Wind shear generates eddies between two wind currents of differing velocities. The differences may be in wind speed, wind direction, or in both. Wind shear may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere. Three conditions are of special interest - (1) wind shear with a low level temperature inversion, (2) wind shear in a frontal zone, and (3) clear air turbulence (CAT) at high levels associated with a jet stream or strong circulation.


Question 14
With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?

a. When a door is removed from the aircraft to facilitate parachute jumpers.
b. When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30° or more.
c. When intentionally banking in excess of 30°.

You answered "When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30° or more.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: FAR 91.307 states: (c) Unless each occupant of the aircraft is wearing an approved parachute, no pilot of a civil aircraft carrying any person (other than a crewmember) may execute any intentional maneuver that exceeds -- 1. A bank of 60 degrees relative to the horizon; or 2. A nose-up or nose-down attitude of 30 degrees relative to the horizon. so the correct answer is "when intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30 degrees or more." Be careful not to confuse the "bank" and "pitch" possible answers.


Question 15
An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?

a. 1359.6 hours.
b. 1369.6 hours.
c. 1349.6 hours.

You answered "1359.6 hours.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The inspection is due exactly 100 hours after the previous (on time) inspection.CFR 14 Part 91.405 states: (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no person may operate an aircraft carrying any person (other than a crewmember) for hire, and no person may give flight instruction for hire in an aircraft which that person provides, unless within the preceding 100 hours of time in service the aircraft has received an annual or 100-hour inspection and been approved for return to service in accordance with part 43 of this chapter or has received an inspection for the issuance of an airworthiness certificate in accordance with part 21 of this chapter. The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours while en route to reach a place where the inspection can be done. The excess time used to reach a place where the inspection can be done must be included in computing the next 100 hours of time in service.


Question 16
The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally

a. 4,000 feet AGL.
b. 1,200 feet AGL.
c. 3,000 feet AGL.

You answered "4,000 feet AGL.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The vertical limit of class C airspace above the primary airport is normally 4000' AGL. Class C airspace is the second most busy type of airport airspace in the airspace system, behind only the class B airspace that encompasses major cities. Class C airspace is depicted on sectional charts in a dark magenta outline. Class C airspace typically has two tiers--an inner tier directly around the airport, where the airspace goes from the surface to 4000' AGL, and an outer tier that goes from (generally) 1500' AGL to 4000' AGL.


Question 17
Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?

a. A decrease in relative humidity.
b. An increase in barometric pressure.
c. An increase in ambient temperature.

You answered "An increase in ambient temperature.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-6 states:Density altitude simply is the altitude in the standard atmosphere where air density is the same as where you are. Pressure, temperature, and humidity determine air density. On a hot day, the air becomes "thinner" or lighter, and its density where you are is equivalent to a higher altitude in the standard atmosphere - thus the term "high density altitude." On a cold day, the air becomes heavy; its density is the same as that at an altitude in the standard atmosphere lower than your altitude - "low density altitude."


Question 18
Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?

a. Lines of longitude are parallel to the Equator.
b. Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles.
c. The 0° line of latitude passes through Greenwich, England.

You answered "Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Lines of longitude run North and South from the pole and are perpendicular to the equator. The zero degree longitude, not latitude line passes through Greenwich, England. Remember - all lines lof longitude are (equally) long. That is, they have to run the whole length from the South Pole to the North Pole. By contrast, some lines of latitude are relatively short (such as nearer to the poles).


Question 19
Where may an aircraft`s operating limitations be found?

a. On the Airworthiness Certificate.
b. In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
c. In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks.

You answered "In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: An aircraft`s operating limitations can be found in the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.


Question 20
What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "Antiauthority"?

a. Rules do not apply in this situation.
b. I know what I am doing.
c. Follow the rules.

You answered "Follow the rules.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: This question is a fairly easy one if you don't skip or misunderstand the meaning of the word "antidote." An antidote is something that you take to counter a poison--in this case, the poisonous attitude of 'antiauthority.' Both of the incorrect answers in this case are examples of antiauthority lines of thought or action. Some of you reading this may initially find such questions to be pedantic and "beneath you" in the sense that this stuff seems fairly obvious. While the content may indeed at some level be obvious, training yourself to act upon such "obvious" information is a whole different story. Try to consciously consider the "antidote" attitude when you find yourself getting into a hazardous attitude trap.


Question 21
One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the

a. type of precipitation.
b. stability of the air mass.
c. wind direction.

You answered "wind direction.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-6 states: Wind always changes across a front. Wind discontinuity may be in direction, in speed, or in both. Be alert for a wind shift when flying in the vicinity of a frontal surface; if the wind shift catches you unaware it can get you off course or even lost in a short time.


Question 22
The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is

a. "ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED."
b. "TEN POINT FIVE."
c. "TEN THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED FEET."

You answered ""ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED."".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 4-2-8 states: Numbers above 9,900 shall be spoken by separating the digits preceding the word "thousand." Examples: " 10,000 - "one zero thousand" " 13,500 - "one three thousand five hundred" Therefore, 10,500 feet MSL should be read as "One-zero thousand, five hundred."


Question 23
While operating in class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall

a. maintain a 3° glide until approximately 1/2 mile to the runway before going below the VASI.
b. maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
c. stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing.

You answered "maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.129 States: "(3) An airplane approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator shall maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. Paragraphs (e)(2) and (e)(3) of this section do not prohibit normal bracketing maneuvers above or below the glide slope that are conducted for the purpose of remaining on the glide slope."


Question 24
When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall

a. maintain an altitude that captures the glide slope at least 2 miles downwind from the runway threshold.
b. maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
c. remain on the glide slope and land between the two-light bar.

You answered "maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: FAR 91.129 (3) states that (for class D airspace--similar rules apply for other classes of airspace), An airplane approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator shall maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.


Question 25
How does frost affect the lifting surfaces of an airplane on takeoff?

a. Frost may prevent the airplane from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed.
b. Frost will change the camber of the wing, increasing lift during takeoff.
c. Frost may cause the airplane to become airborne with a lower angle of attack at a lower indicated airspeed.

You answered "Frost may prevent the airplane from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-6A, Chapter 10 states:Frost does not change the basic aerodynamic shape of the wing, but the roughness of its surface spoils the smooth flow of air thus causing a slowing of the airflow. This slowing of the air causes early air flow separation over the affected airfoil resulting in a loss of lift. A heavy coat of hard frost will cause a 5 to 10 percent increase in stall speed. Even a small amount of frost on airfoils may prevent an aircraft from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed.


Question 26
From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations?

a. Ground control, on initial contact.
b. Clearance delivery.
c. Tower, just before takeoff.

You answered "Ground control, on initial contact.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 4-1-17 states: Pilots of departing VFR aircraft are encouraged to request radar traffic information by notifying ground control on initial contact with their request and proposed direction of flight.


Question 27
(Refer to figure 20.) Interpret the weather symbol depicted in Utah on the 12-hour Significant Weather Prognostic Chart.

a. Base of clear air turbulence, 18,000 feet.
b. Thunderstorm tops at 18,000 feet.
c. Moderate turbulence, surface to 18,000 feet.


The correct answer is: "Moderate turbulence, surface to 18,000 feet."
Reference: AC 00-45, table 8-1 depicts this as the symbol for moderate turbulence.\


Question 28
When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left?

a. When at high angles of attack.
b. When at high airspeeds.
c. When at low angles of attack.

You answered "When at high angles of attack.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 61-23, chapter 1 states: The effects of "P" factor or asymmetric propeller loading usually occur when the airplane is flown at a high angle of attack. The downward moving blade, which is on the right side of the propeller arc, as seen from the rear, has a higher angle of attack, greater action and reaction, and therefore higher thrust than the upward moving blade on the left. This results in a tendency for the airplane to yaw around the vertical axis to the left.


Question 29
The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is

a. 8 nautical miles.
b. 4 nautical miles.
c. 6 nautical miles.

You answered "4 nautical miles.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The width of a Federal Airway (Victor Airway) from either side of the centerline is 4nm. This means that each airway is 8nm wide. Since Victor Airways are mostly related to IFR flying, how does this affect a Private / Recreational Pilot? Remember that the area of Victor Airways is considred Class E airspace under VFR, NOT class G. Additionally, aerobatics is prohibited along victor airways, so if you plan on doing some aerobatics, it's not enough to do them away "not on" the airway drawn on your sectional chart - you have to remember that the airway itself is 8nm wide. Note how on the sectional chart above, the approximate actual width of the Victor Airways has been indicated in a dark blue shading.


Question 30
(Refer to figure 24.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Allendale County Airport (area 1) to Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2). The wind is from 090° at 16 knots, and the true airspeed is 90 knots.

a. 208°.
b. 212°.
c. 230°.


The correct answer is: "208°."
Reference: Place a plotter on the chart, with the edge lined up on both Allendale and Claxton-Evans Co. and read 212 true. Add the 5 degrees of west variation, to determine a magnetic course of 217 degrees. At 90 knots, the drift is 8 degrees right. Subtract the drift correction to determine the magnetic heading of 209 degrees.


Question 31
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding

a. 12 calendar months.
b. 24 calendar months.
c. 90 days.

You answered "90 days.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: This is one of the few areas where a regulation is enforced by calendar days rather than by calendar months. Both 12 and 24 months should seem like a lot of time to go without making three takeoffs and landings but still be able to potentially put passengers at risk. 90 days is the correct answer. If you do one landing a month, you can carry passengers (not exactly correct, but close enough that it will help you remember the correct answer).


Question 32
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is

a. 1 mile.
b. 3 miles.
c. 5 miles.

You answered "3 miles.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.155 requires the following weather for this operation: Night - Night visibility - 3 statute milesCloud clearance - 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal.


Question 33
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic?

a. An aircraft on final approach to land.
b. An aircraft in distress.
c. A balloon.

You answered "An aircraft in distress.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Throughout the Federal Aviation Regulations, we see clauses such as "except for in an emergency..." This is no exception--FAR 91.113 states: An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over all other air traffic. Think of an aircraft in distress as an ambulance with its sirens on. You are required to yield to it, period.


Question 34
(Refer to figure 26, area 4.) The airspace directly overlying Fort Worth Meacham is

a. Class C airspace to 5,000 feet MSL.
b. Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL.
c. Class B airspace to 10,000 feet MSL.

You answered "Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Immediately around the Ft Worth Meacham Field is a dashed blue line with the numbers 32 in a box. This is indicative of class D airspace on a sectional chart - see the sectional chart legend. Note that the Ft Worth Meacham Class D is a slighltly odd half-circle shape. Class C to 5000 is incorrect as there are no 50's in a box immediately close to the Ft Worth Meacham airport. Plus, AIM paragraph. 3-2-4 says that Class C airspace extends up to 4,000ft above the airport elevation. With Ft Worth Meacham's elevation at 710, this would be incorrect thru simple addition. Class B to 10,000 is also incorrect. In the Dallas Metroplex, the primary Class B airport is DFW International (area 5 on the sectional example). Directly to the right of the large black 5 is 110/SFC. Which indicates that the top of the Class B is at 11,000ft.


Question 35
What must a pilot be aware of as a result of ground effect?

a. Wingtip vortices increase creating wake turbulence problems for arriving and departing aircraft.
b. A full stall landing will require less up elevator deflection than would a full stall when done free of ground effect.
c. Induced drag decreases; therefore, any excess speed at the point of flare may cause considerable floating.

You answered "Induced drag decreases; therefore, any excess speed at the point of flare may cause considerable floating.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 61-23, chapter 4 states: When an airplane is flown at approximately one wing span or less above the surface, the vertical component of airflow is restricted and modified, and changes occur in the normal pattern of the airflow around the wing and from the wingtips. This change alters the direction of the relative wind in a manner that produces a smaller angle of attack. This means that a wing operating in ground effect with a given angle of attack will generate less induced drag than a wing out of ground effect. Therefore, it is more efficient.While this may be useful in specific situations, it can also trap the unwary into expecting greater climb performance than the airplane is capable of sustaining. In other words, an airplane can take off, and while in ground effect establish a climb angle and/or rate that cannot be maintained once the airplane reaches an altitude where ground effect can no longer influence performance. Conversely, on a landing, ground effect may produce "floating," and result in overshooting, particularly at fast approach speeds.


Question 36
What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?

a. Look only at far away, dim lights.
b. Scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing.
c. Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds.

You answered "Scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: FAA-H-8083-3 states:The fact that the rods are distributed in a band around the cones and do not lie directly behind the pupils, makes "off center" viewing (looking to one side of an object) important during night flight. During daylight an object can be seen best by looking directly at it, but at night a scanning procedure to permit "off center" viewing of the object is more effective. Therefore, the pilot should consciously practice this scanning procedure to improve night vision.


Question 37
What is ground effect?

a. The result of the disruption of the airflow patterns about the wings of an airplane to the point where the wings will no longer support the airplane in flight.
b. The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane.
c. The result of an alteration in airflow patterns increasing induced drag about the wings of an airplane.

You answered "The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 61-23, chapter 1 states: When an airplane is flown at approximately one wing span or less above the surface, the vertical component of airflow is restricted and modified, and changes occur in the normal pattern of the airflow around the wing and from the wingtips.This change alters the direction of the relative wind in a manner that produces a smaller angle of attack. This means that a wing operating in ground effect with a given angle of attack will generate less induced drag than a wing out of ground effect. Therefore, it is more efficient. While this may be useful in specific situations, it can also trap the unwary into expecting greater climb performance than the airplane is capable of sustaining. In other words, an airplane can take off, and while in ground effect establish a climb angle and/or rate that cannot be maintained once the airplane reaches an altitude where ground effect can no longer influence performance. Conversely, on a landing, ground effect may produce "floating," and result in overshooting, particularly at fast approach speeds.


Question 38
What effect does high density altitude, as compared to low density altitude, have on propeller efficiency and why?

a. Efficiency is reduced due to the increased force of the propeller in the thinner air.
b. Efficiency is increased due to less friction on the propeller blades.
c. Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at high density altitudes than at low density altitudes.


The correct answer is: "Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at high density altitudes than at low density altitudes."
Reference: High density altitude implies non-dense air, such as at high elevation or on hot days. High density altitude decreases propeller efficiency because the propeller exerts less force--that is, it has fewer air molecules to throw backward-than at low density altitudes. Efficiency is reduced due to the decreased, not increased force of the propeller in thinner air (read carefully!). There may be less friction on the propeller blades due to increased density altitude, but since you'd like to have the propeller throw back more molecules, the cumulative result of this is the lessening of propeller efficiency


Question 39
(Refer to figures 33 and 34.) Determine if the airplane weight and balance is within limits. Front seat occupants 415 lb Rear seat occupants 110 lb Fuel, main tanks 44 gal Fuel, aux. tanks 19 gal Baggage 32 lb

a. 19 pounds overweight, CG out of limits forward.
b. Weight within limits, CG out of limits.
c. 19 pounds overweight, CG within limits.


The correct answer is: "Weight within limits, CG out of limits."
Reference: First, compute total weight, remembering that fuel is 6lb/gal. " 415 lb + 110 lb + (44 gal * 6 lb/gal) + (19 gal * 6 lb/gal) + 32 lb = 935 lbs of stuff loaded in the airplane. " 2015 lb BEW of airplane (from Fig 33) + 935 = 2950lbs. Exactly in limits! From here, we know that since our weight is good, "weight within limits ..." must be the right answer. However, let's verify this by looking at the CG. From Figure 34, we see that the minimum moment for a weight of 2950 is 242200. Hence, our moment of 238981 is too low (CG too far forward). We reconfirm Weight within limits, CG out of limits.


Question 40
(Refer to figure 21, area 4.) A balloon launched at the town of Edenton drifts northeasterly along the railroad. What minimum altitude must it maintain to clear all of the obstacles in the vicinity of Hertford by at least 500 feet?

a. 805 feet MSL.
b. 1,000 feet MSL.
c. 1,015 feet MSL.

You answered "1,015 feet MSL.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The highest obstacle in the area is the tower that is 515 feet MSL (500 feet AGL). Adding the required 500 feet gives us a minimum altitude of 1,015 feet MSL. Please note that while this question makes reference to a "balloon," the issue is raises applies to all pilots, not just balloon pilots. Hence, this question may appear on your non-balloon written test.


Question 41
If a control tower and an FSS are located on the same airport, which function is provided by the FSS during those periods when the tower is closed?

a. Approach control services.
b. Automatic closing of the IFR flight plan.
c. Airport Advisory Service.

You answered "Airport Advisory Service.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 3-5-1 states: Airport Advisory / Information Services Local Airport Advisory (LAA) service is operated within 10 statute miles of an airport where a control tower is not operating but where a FSS is located on the airport. At such locations, the FSS provides a complete local airport advisory service to arriving and departing aircraft. During periods of fast changing weather the FSS will automatically provide Final Guard as part of the service from the time the aircraft reports "on-final" or "taking- the active-runway" until the aircraft reports "on- the- ground" or "airborne."


Question 42
How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?

a. As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations.
b. Indefinitely, unless the aircraft suffers major damage.
c. As long as the aircraft has a current Registration Certificate.


The correct answer is: "As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations."
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.405 states: Each owner or operator of an aircraft -- a. Shall have that aircraft inspected as prescribed in subpart E of this part and shall between required inspections, except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, have discrepancies repaired as prescribed in part 43 of this chapter; b. Shall ensure that maintenance personnel make appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service; c. Shall have any inoperative instrument or item of equipment, permitted to be inoperative by §91.213(d)(2) of this part, repaired, replaced, removed, or inspected at the next required inspection; and d. When listed discrepancies include inoperative instruments or equipment, shall ensure that a placard has been installed as required by §43.11 of this chapter.


Question 43
(Refer to figure 22.) An airship crosses over Minot VORTAC (area 1) at 1056 and over the creek 8 nautical miles south-southeast on Victor 15 at 1108. What should be the approximate position on Victor 15 at 1211?

a. Crossing the road east of Underwood.
b. Over Lake Nettie National Wildlife Refuge.
c. Over the powerlines east of Washburn Airport.

You answered "Crossing the road east of Underwood.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The airship traveled 8 NM in 12 minutes, therefore has a groundspeed of 40 knots. In the next 63 minutes (1108 to 1211) it will travel another 42 miles from the creek (or be a total of 50 NM from the Minot VOR). This point is approximately the road east of Underwood. " 1108 - 1056 = 12 (minutes). " 1211 - 1108 = 63 (minutes). " To figure out the distance travelled in those 63 minutes, set up an inequality as such: " To solve this inequality, multiply 8 nm by 63 nm and then divide by 12 min. = 42 nm. " Now return to the chart and measure out 50 nm (8 nm + 42 nm) from Minot VORTAC on V15. Please note that while this question references an airship, the topic being tested is common to all aircraft and thus this question may appear in a non-airship written test.


Question 44
(Refer to figure 27, area 3.) When flying over Arrowwood National Wildlife Refuge, a pilot should fly no lower than

a. 3,000 feet AGL.
b. 2,000 feet AGL.
c. 2,500 feet AGL.


The correct answer is: "2,000 feet AGL."
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 7-4-6 states:Pilots are requested to maintain a minimum altitude of 2,000 feet above the surface of the following: National Parks, Monuments, Seashores, Lakeshores, Recreation Areas and Scenic Riverways administered by the National Park Service, National Wildlife Refuges, Big Game Refuges, Game Ranges and Wildlife Ranges administered by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, and Wilderness and Primitive areas administered by the U.S. Forest Service.