Private Pilot Testing Site

Question 1
(Refer to figure 8.) What is the effect of a temperature increase from 30 to 50 °F on the density altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 3,000 feet MSL?

a. 900-foot increase.
b. 1,300-foot increase.
c. 1,100-foot decrease.

You answered "1,300-foot increase.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: " Locate the 30 and 50 degrees Fahrenheit points along the horizontal axis of the figure " Trace two vertical lines from those points to where the diagonal 3,000 foot pressure altitude line is met to get two new points. (Area 1) " From the two new points, trace two horizontal lines to the density altitude scale on the vertical axis. " The difference between the two values you will read off of the density altitude scale is 1,300 feet. (Area 2) " If you correlate this back to the question text which indicates a temperature increase from 30 to 50, you will see that this implies a 1300 foot increase, not decrease in density altitude. This makes logical sense, as we know that the density altitude on hot days is higher than on cooler days.

Question 2
(Refer to figure 22.) On what frequency can a pilot receive Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) in the vicinity of area 1?

a. 117.1 MHz.
b. 118.0 MHz.
c. 122.0 MHz.

You answered "117.1 MHz.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The "H" in a dark circle at the top right of the Minot VORTAC box indicates that HIWAS services are available on its frequency, 117.1.

Question 3
What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction?

a. Annual and 50-hour inspections.
b. Biannual and 100-hour inspections.
c. Annual and 100-hour inspections.

You answered "Annual and 100-hour inspections.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.409 states: (b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no person may operate an aircraft carrying any person (other than a crewmember) for hire, and no person may give flight instruction for hire in an aircraft which that person provides, unless within the preceding 100 hours of time in service the aircraft has received an annual or 100-hour inspection and been approved for return to service in accordance with part 43 of this chapter or has received an inspection for the issuance of an airworthiness certificate in accordance with part 21 of this chapter. The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours while en route to reach a place where the inspection can be done. The excess time used to reach a place where the inspection can be done must be included in computing the next 100 hours of time in service.

Question 4
Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a

a. heat exchange.
b. movement of air.
c. pressure differential.

You answered "heat exchange.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-6A states:The amount of solar energy received by any region varies with time of day, with seasons, and with latitude. These differences in solar energy create temperature variations. Temperatures also vary with differences in topographical surface and with altitude. These temperature variations create forces that drive the atmosphere in its endless motions.

Question 5
How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of the flight at a controlled airport?

a. The pilot must close the flight plan with the nearest FSS or other FAA facility upon landing.
b. The tower will relay the instructions to the nearest FSS when the aircraft contacts the tower for landing.
c. The tower will automatically close the flight plan when the aircraft turns off the runway.

You answered "The pilot must close the flight plan with the nearest FSS or other FAA facility upon landing.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 5-1-12 states:Pilots are responsible for ensuring that their VFR or DVFR flight plan is canceled. You should close your flight plan with the nearest FSS, or if one is not available, you may request any ATC facility to relay your cancellation to the FSS. Control towers do not automatically close VFR or DVFR flight plans since they do not know if a particular VFR aircraft is on a flight plan. If you fail to report or cancel your flight plan within 1/2 hour after your ETA, search and rescue procedures are started.

Question 6
What is it often called when a pilot pushes his or her capabilities and the aircraft's limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain in low visibility and ceiling?

a. Scud running.
b. Peer pressure.
c. Mind set.

You answered "Scud running.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Low ceiling / visibility and/or generally marginal VFR conditions are commonly referred to as "scud." Correspondingly, the term "scud running" refers to attempts to fly VFR in such conditions.The term Scud Running has appropriately negative connotations associated with it--pilots recognize that scud running is dangerous. If you glance through the NTSB aviation accident database, you will see that a large percentage of fatal accidents is caused by VFR flight into IMC conditions. Correspondingly, a large portion of those incidents have their origin in a pilots' attempting to scud run and encountering unexpected deteriorating conditions. Note that "scud running" does not necessarily imply violating any explicit rules. Flying a cross country flight at VFR minimums can rightly be considered "scud running" and it is dangerous, even if, technically, it is within what the rules allow.

Question 7
If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs?

a. 70-foot increase in density altitude.
b. 70-foot increase in indicated altitude.
c. 700-foot increase in indicated altitude.

The correct answer is: "700-foot increase in indicated altitude."
Reference: The indicated altitude changes 1,000 feet for every 1" HG change in the altimeter setting (Kollsman window on the altimeter) in the direction of the altimeter setting change. So a change "up" from 29.15 to 29.85 is an increase of .7 of an inch of Hg, or 700 indicated feet.; Remember that when the altimeter setting goes UP, the indicated altitude goes UP, and vice versa.

Question 8
Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates

a. calibrated altitude at field elevation.
b. absolute altitude at field elevation.
c. true altitude at field elevation.

You answered "true altitude at field elevation.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: " True altitude is altitude above mean sea level (MSL). When you set the barometric pressure in the altimeter's Kollsman window, you are setting the airport's true elevation in MSL. ; " Absolute altitude is the height above the ground. If you were on the ground, this would presumably be zero. Setting the barometric pressure properly does not set the altimeter to zero in general. ; " There is nothing that is commonly known as "calibrated" altitude. Calibrated AIRSPEED is airspeed corrected for nonstandard temperature.

Question 9
Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135°?

a. Odd thousands plus 500 feet.
b. Even thousands plus 500 feet.
c. Even thousands.

You answered "Odd thousands plus 500 feet.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.159 states: Except while holding in a holding pattern of 2 minutes or less, or while turning, each person operating an aircraft under VFR in level cruising flight more than 3,000 feet above the surface shall maintain the appropriate altitude or flight level prescribed below, unless otherwise authorized by ATC:a. When operating below 18,000 feet MSL and -- 1. On a magnetic course of zero degrees through 179 degrees, any odd thousand foot MSL altitude +500 feet (such as 3,500, 5,500, or 7,500); or 2. On a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees, any even thousand foot MSL altitude +500 feet (such as 4,500, 6,500, or 8,500). The old gentleman named Neodd Sweven. North thru East - Odd; South thru West - Even

Question 10
(Refer to figure 3.) Altimeter 1 indicates

a. 1,500 feet.
b. 500 feet.
c. 10,500 feet.

You answered "10,500 feet.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The ten-thousand foot pointer (blue) is just above 10,000 feet. The thousand foot pointer (white) is between 0 and 1,000 feet, and the hundred foot pointer (blue) indicates 500 feet.

Question 11
(Refer to figure 26, area 7.) The airspace overlying Mc Kinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to

a. 2,500 feet MSL.
b. 2,900 feet MSL.
c. 700 feet AGL.

You answered "2,900 feet MSL.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Sectional Chart Legend shows this as Class D airspace within the dashed line to an upper limit of 2,900 feet MSL as indicated by the boxed '29'.

Question 12
SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous to which aircraft?

a. Large aircraft only.
b. Small aircraft only.
c. All aircraft.

You answered "All aircraft.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-45, section 4 states:A SIGMET advises of non-convective weather that is potentially hazardous to all aircraft. In the conterminous U.S., SIGMETs are issued when the following phenomena occur or are expected to occur: 1. Severe icing not associated with thunderstorms 2. Severe or extreme turbulence or clear air turbulence (CAT) not associated with thunderstorms 3. Dust storms, sandstorms, or volcanic ash lowering surface or in-flight visibilities to below three miles4. Volcanic eruption.

Question 13
In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited? {{Image1469}}

a. Class C.
b. Class A.
c. Class B.

You answered "Class A.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Class A airspace is (generally) the airspace "A"bove -- that is, 18000 feet and above. VFR flights are prohibited in class A airspace. Class C and B airspace is the airspace around medium-large and large airports, respectively. VFR flights are permitted in both, albeit given certain requirements.

Question 14
If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be

a. alternating red and green.
b. steady red.
c. flashing red.

The correct answer is: "steady red."
Reference: A steady red light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot should give way to other aircraft and continue circling.

Question 15
An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to

a. exercise extreme caution.
b. not land; the airport is unsafe.
c. hold position.
d. go to sleep, the airplane can land itself.

You answered "exercise extreme caution.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: An alternating red and green light signal, when directed to a pilot on the ground or in the air, tells that pilot to exercise extreme caution.

Question 16
(Refer to figure 37.) What is the headwind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports the wind as 220° at 30 knots?

a. 19 knots.
b. 26 knots.
c. 23 knots.

You answered "23 knots.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The wind is 40 degrees off the nose to the right. " Follow the 40 degree line (red line) down until it meets the 30 knot arc (blue line) in Area 1 " Go left to read headwind component of 23 knots (Area 2)

Question 17
Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?

a. Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary.
b. Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.
c. Make all turns to the left.

You answered "Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.127 states: Operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class E airspace.a. Unless otherwise required by part 93 of this chapter or unless otherwise authorized or required by the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the Class E airspace area, each person operating an aircraft on or in the vicinity of an airport in a Class E airspace area must comply with the requirements of 91.126.b. Departures. Each pilot of an aircraft must comply with any traffic patterns established for that airport in part 93 of this chapter.

Question 18
Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when?

a. Each person on board the aircraft during the entire flight.
b. Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only.
c. Pilots only, during takeoffs and landings.

You answered "Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: From FAR 91.107: (3) Except as provided in this paragraph, each person on board a U.S.-registered civil aircraft (except a free balloon that incorporates a basket or gondola or an airship type certificated before November 2, 1987) must occupy an approved seat or berth with a safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness, properly secured about him or her during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing. "Pilots only" is incorrect, per FAR 91.107 which refers to "each person." The answer beginning with "each person" is likewise incorrect because it refers to "the entire flight," which is not what the FAR states.

Question 19
(Refer to figure 39.) Determine the approximate landing ground roll distance. Pressure altitude Sea level Headwind 4 kts Temperature Std

a. 401 feet.
b. 490 feet.
c. 356 feet.

You answered "401 feet.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: In the sea level column, read a ground roll of 445 feet. Note 1 tells us to subtract 10 percent for each 4 knots of headwind. 445 minus 44.5 equals 400.5 feet. 401 feet is the closest answer.

Question 20
(Refer to figure 20.) The enclosed shaded area associated with the low pressure system over northern Utah is forecast to have

a. continuous snow.
b. intermittent snow.
c. continuous snow showers.

You answered "continuous snow.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-45, section 8 explains the solid line with hash marks (shaded area) depicts continuous precipitation. The arrow from the two asterisks also indicate continuous snow.

Question 21
(Refer to figure 26.) What is the estimated time en route for a flight from Denton Muni (area 1) to Addison (area 2)? The wind is from 200° at 20 knots, the true airspeed is 110 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7° east.

a. 19 minutes.
b. 16 minutes.
c. 13 minutes.

You answered "13 minutes.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The distance between Denton and Addison is 23 NM. To determine groundspeed, we use our E6B calculator. 1. The local magnetic variation is 7o East.2. Determine the magnetic course from Denton to Addison. Use a straightedge to draw a line from the center of one airport to the center of the other. Let's read the reciprocal magnetic heading - 128o. 3. We need to convert our magnetic course to a true one. MC = TC + VAR, so TC = MC - VAR. Remember that "East is Least.", so we "subtract" 7o from 128o to get 121o True Course. 4. Now we turn to the E6B. o Put the True Course of 121 a) at the top. b) Adjust the slider so that our True Airspeed of 110 knots is indicated at the center. c) Draw a dot 20 knots below the 110 center dot to correspond to the wind speed. d) Rotate the dial so that our wind direction of 200o is indicated at the top. e) Read the resulting groundspeed - we see that is is 106 knots. The E-6B shows our groundspeed to be 106 knots. At 106 knots, 23 NM will take 13 minutes.

Question 22
(Refer to figure 50.) If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on

a. Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right.
b. Runway 36 and expect a crosswind from the right.
c. Runway 22 directly into the wind.

You answered "Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The tetrahedron shows the wind is coming from approximately 220 degrees. This favors runway 22, which, alas, is closed (X on the end). The favored runway, therefore, is 18 (as this would have more headwind than 36, which would have a tailwind), and you should expect a crosswind from the right. The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 4-3-3 states: The segmented circle system consists of the following components: 1. The segmented circle: Located in a position affording maximum visibility to pilots in the air and on the ground and providing a centralized location for other elements of the system.2. The wind direction indicator. A wind cone, wind sock, or wind tee installed near the operational runway to indicate wind direction. The large end of the wind cone/wind sock points into the wind as does the large end (cross bar) of the wind tee. In lieu of a tetrahedron and where a wind sock or wind cone is collocated with a wind tee, the wind tee may be manually aligned with the runway in use to indicate landing direction. These signaling devices may be located in the center of the segmented circle and may be lighted for night use. Pilots are cautioned against using a tetrahedron to indicate wind direction. 3. The landing direction indicator: A tetrahedron is installed when conditions at the airport warrant its use. It may be used to indicate the direction of landings and takeoffs. A tetrahedron may be located at the center of a segmented circle and may be lighted for night operations. The small end of the tetrahedron points in the direction of landing. Pilots are cautioned against using a tetrahedron for any purpose other than as an indicator of landing direction. Further, pilots should use extreme caution when making runway selection by use of a tetrahedron in very light or calm wind conditions as the tetrahedron may not be aligned with the designated calmwind runway. At airports with control towers, the tetrahedron should only be referenced when the control tower is not in operation. Tower instructions supersede tetrahedron indications. 4. Landing strip indicators: Installed in pairs as shown in the segmented circle diagram and used to show the alignment of landing strips. 5. Traffic pattern indicators: Arranged in pairs in conjunction with landing strip indicators and used to indicate the direction of turns when there is a variation from the normal left traffic pattern. (If there is no segmented circle installed at the airport, traffic pattern indicators may be installed on or near the end of the runway.)

Question 23
When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator?

a. Upon request.
b. Within 10 days.
c. Within 7 days.

You answered "Upon request.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.3 states: (b) In an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action, the pilot in command may deviate from any rule of this part to the extent required to meet that emergency.(c) Each pilot in command who deviates from a rule under paragraph (b) of this section shall, upon the request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator. (Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 2120-0005)

Question 24
What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air?

a. Heating and condensation.
b. Evaporation and sublimation.
c. Supersaturation and evaporation.

You answered "Evaporation and sublimation.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-6A states:Evaporation, condensation, sublimation, freezing, and melting are changes of state. Evaporation is the changing of liquid water to invisible water vapor. Condensation is the reverse process. Sublimation is the changing of ice directly to water vapor, or water vapor to ice, bypassing the liquid state in each process. Snow or ice crystals result from the sublimation of water vapor directly to the solid state. We are all familiar with freezing and melting processes.

Question 25
In order to act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, a pilot must have

a. passed a flight test in a high-performance airplane.
b. made and logged three solo takeoffs and landings in a high-performance airplane.
c. received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower.

You answered "received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: 14 CFR Part 61.31 states: Additional training required for operating high-performance airplanes. 1. Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane (an airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower), unless the person has -- i. Received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in a high-performance airplane, or in a flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a high-performance airplane, and has been found proficient in the operation and systems of the airplane; and ii. Received a one-time endorsement in the pilot's logbook from an authorized instructor who certifies the person is proficient to operate a high-performance airplane.2. The training and endorsement required by paragraph (f)(1) of this section is not required if the person has logged flight time as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, or in a flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a high-performance airplane prior to August 4, 1997.

Question 26
What would decrease the stability of an air mass?

a. Cooling from below.
b. Decrease in water vapor.
c. Warming from below.
d. A large bird.

You answered "Warming from below.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-6 states: When two surfaces are heated unequally, they heat the overlying air unevenly. The warmer* air expands and becomes lighter or less dense than the cool* air. The more dense, cool air is drawn to the ground by its greater gravitational force lifting or forcing the warm air upward much as oil is forced to the top of water when the two are mixed. The rising air spreads and cools, eventually descending to complete the convective circulation. As long as the uneven heating persists, convection maintains a continuous "convective current."

Question 27
A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right-of-way?

a. The seaplane.
b. The motorboat.
c. Both should alter course to the right.

You answered "The seaplane.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.115(b) states:When aircraft, or an aircraft and a vessel, are on crossing courses, the aircraft or vessel to the other's right has the right-of-way.

Question 28
(Refer to figure 22.) Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel?

a. Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) and Garrison (area 2).
b. Minot Intl. (area 1) and Garrison (area 2).
c. Minot Intl. (area 1) and Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3).

You answered "Minot Intl. (area 1) and Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3).".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Sectional Chart Legend tells us the airport symbol with the small boxes at 12, 3, 6, and 9 o'clock indicate fuel is available. To determine the type of fuel and hours available, you would need to refer to the Airport/Facility Directory.

Question 29
(Refer to figure 18.) The marginal weather in central Kentucky is due to low

a. ceiling and visibility.
b. ceiling.
c. visibility.

The correct answer is: "ceiling."
Reference: The legend on the bottom of the Weather Depiction Chart defines the contoured area without shading as having ceilings of 1000 to 3000 feet and visibilities of 3 to 5 miles. The circles on central Kentucky are solid black. Table 6-1 in AC 00-45 shows that they indicate an overcast sky condition.

Question 30
Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is

a. 250 knots.
b. 230 knots.
c. 200 knots.

You answered "200 knots.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: FAR 91.117 states:(b) Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet above the surface within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots (230 mph.).

Question 31
(Refer to figure 52.) What information should be entered in block 9 for a VFR day flight?

a. The name of the airport where the aircraft is based.
b. The name of the airport of first intended landing.
c. The name of destination airport if no stopover for more than 1 hour is anticipated.

You answered "The name of destination airport if no stopover for more than 1 hour is anticipated.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 5-1-7 states: Block 9. Enter the destination airport identifier code (or name if the identifier is unknown). Paragraph 5-1-4 states: When a "stopover" flight is anticipated, it is recommended that a separate flight plan be filed for each "leg" when the stop is expected to be more than 1 hour duration.

Question 32
No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight

a. except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.
b. in Class D airspace under special VFR.
c. over a densely populated area.

You answered "except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: This is one of those questions where all of the choices seem reasonable, though, of course, only one is ultimately correct. Answer "in class D airspace under special VFR" is incorrect, because there is no rule with regards to formation flight in class D airspace under SVFR (special VFR). Under normal circumstances, it doesn't sound like the best idea, but there is no explicit rule against it. "Over a densely populated area" is incorrect because, likewise, there is no rule against formation flight over a densely populated area.Formation flight is not an easy thing to do--it is remarkably easy to misjudge speeds, headings, and closure rates. You should not attempt it without specific training. The rules say you can not do it at all without prior arrangement with the PIC of each aircraft involved.

Question 33
(Refer to figure 28.) An aircraft departs an airport in the Pacific standard time zone at 1030 PST for a 4-hour flight to an airport located in the central standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?

a. 2130Z.
b. 2030Z.
c. 2230Z.

You answered "2230Z.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: 1. Convert 1030 PST to Coordinated Universal (Zulu) time by adding 8 hours. 1030 + 8 = 1830Z. 2. Add the flight time of four hours. 1830Z + 0400 = 2230Z.That the aircraft is landing at an airport in the central time zone is of no consequence as far as this question is concerned.

Question 34
(Refer to figure 29, illustration 3.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft's position relative to the station?

a. Southeast.
b. West.
c. East.

You answered "Southeast.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: First, recognize that the Illustration 3 shows a VOR indicator with full left needle deflection and an ambiguous TO/FROM indication. This is equivalent to Get in the habit of answering ALL of these VOR questions the same way. Learn the following system once and you can apply it for virtually all VOR questions.1. Draw the VOR with north as up, and the four quadrants. 2. Draw an arrow with the letter "F" over it facing the heading at the top of the pictured instrument. So, in this case we draw it over 030o. Make sure the F faces DOWN, like the arrow. 3. Write the letters "R" and "L" from left to right at 90 degree points on each side of the compass rose from your F. Make sure that they face the same direction as your F. It's important that you practice this a few times so you don't get it backwards. 4. Draw a line ("CRS Line") through the arrow. This shows the line that would be if the needle on the instrument were centered. The L side of your CRS line corresponds to areas where the needle is to the left ("fly left" indication) and the R side of your CRS line corresponds to areas where the needle is to the right ("fly right" indication). Since our needle is deflected to the left, we know we are in the "L" half. 5. Split the area into two halves. The split should go through the center of the VOR and be perpendicular to your CRS line. We have drawn an ambiguity zone onto our drawing - While you need not do this for most VOR questions, for this one you do since the TO/FROM reading is ambiguous. 6. Normally, we'd write the word "From" in the half where your "F" is. Write the word "To" in the other half. While we don't need to do this here because of the ambiguous indication, we do it anyway for completeness. 7. So where are we in relation to the VOR? We're on the ambiguity (grey area between the TO and FROM) and with a LEFT needle deflection. Clearly we are SOUTHEAST of the station.

Question 35
(Refer to figure 14.) The base and tops of the overcast layer reported by a pilot are

a. 7,200 feet MSL and 8,900 feet MSL.
b. 5,500 feet AGL and 7,200 feet MSL.
c. 1,800 feet MSL and 5,500 feet MSL.

You answered "7,200 feet MSL and 8,900 feet MSL.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The PIREP contains the segment "OVC 072-TOP 089." This means that the base of the overcast is at 7,200 and the tops are at 8,900. 5500-7200 feet MSL is wrong because this is from the top of the broken layer to the base of the overcast layer. 1800-5500 MSL is wrong because this is the base of the broken (BKN) layer to the top of the broken layer.

Question 36
If an unstable air mass is forced upward, what type clouds can be expected?

a. Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence.
b. Stratus clouds with little vertical development.
c. Stratus clouds with considerable associated turbulence.

You answered "Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-6 states:When unstable air is forced upward, the disturbance grows, and any resulting cloudiness shows extensive vertical development.

Question 37
What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch nosedown when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted?

a. When thrust is reduced to less than weight, lift is also reduced and the wings can no longer support the weight.
b. The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced.
c. The CG shifts forward when thrust and drag are reduced.

You answered "The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: When power is reduced, the nose of most small airplanes will pitch down. This is caused by the reduction in prop downwash on the elevators (as described in the correct answer). Think about this for a moment. The horizontal stabilizer assembly acts like an upside down wing. When more air (propwash) passes over it, it wants to go DOWN, pushing the nose UP. Similarly, when the propwash is reduced, it "sinks" by going UP, pushing the nose down.; The "when thrust is reduced ..." answer is not correct. The phrase "thrust is reduced to less than weight" has very little meaning. Neither does "wings can no longer support the weight." If you correctly recognize those phrases as bogus, you won't pick this answer.; The center of gravity (CG) does not shift forward when thrust and drag are reduced. While a forward CG shift would send the nose downward, CG is determined by the loading of the airplane. For example, if a weight were moved from the back of the airplane to the front, the CG would shift forward. A simple power reduction cannot change the CG, so this answer too is incorrect.

Question 38
The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace is

a. 20 nautical miles.
b. 15 nautical miles.
c. 5 nautical miles.

You answered "20 nautical miles.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The normal radius of the outer area of class C airspace is 20 nautical miles. This is a question that can really stump you if you haven't encountered it before. Initially, you may think that the "outer area" of class C airspace refers to the 'outer core' ('outer shelf') area, depicted in magenta outline on a sectional chart, that usually goes from about 1500 to 4000 AGL. But that's not what the FAA means by 'outer area.' Rather, they are referring to the area outside of the outer core/helf area to a radius of 20nm. This area is NOT depicted on sectional charts. It simply exists. The purpose for this question is for the FAA to make you aware of the existence of this "outer area." Basically, as a VFR pilot, if you are outside of class C airspace, but still inside this 20nm radius "outer area", you are encouraged to make use of the radar services of the class C airport. This is not a requirement. Let's say you were going to fly from one airport to another inside of the "outer area", without ever actually going inside the class C airspace. After departing airport 1 and making your usual VFR radio calls, you could call up "C-Town's" approach controller as such: " You: C-Town Approach, Cessna 51412 " C-Town: Cessna 51412, C-Town Approach, go ahead " You: Approach, Cessna 51412 is a Skyhawk just off (Airport 1), VFR to (Airport 2). " C-Town: Cessna 51412, squawk 4025" You: Squawk 4025, Cessna 51412. " (a few moments later) C-Town: Cessna 51412, radar contact 4 miles northwest of (Airport 1), proceed on course. " You: C-Town, on course, 51412. When you have the airport in sight: " You: Approach, Cessna 51412 has (Airport 2) in sight. " C-Town: Cessna 51412, roger, squawk and maintain VFR, change to advisory frequency approved. " You: Squawk VFR, Good Day, Cessna 51412. At which point you enter 1200 into your transponder and be on your way.

Question 39
(Refer to figure 21.) What is your approximate position on low altitude airway Victor 1, southwest of Norfolk (area 1), if the VOR receiver indicates you are on the 340° radial of Elizabeth City VOR (area 3)?

a. 15 nautical miles from Norfolk VORTAC.
b. 23 nautical miles from Norfolk VORTAC
c. 18 nautical miles from Norfolk VORTAC

You answered "18 nautical miles from Norfolk VORTAC".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Locate the Elizabeth City VOR/DME (ECG) around area 3 on the chart. Draw a line on the chart (red line) on the VOR/DME's 340 radial--that is, the radial that would be numbered "34" on the VOR/DME rose. (it would be the first major tick mark to the right of "33" (330)). Locate where this intersects the blue V1 airway You will see that this intersects V1 at a point roughly south of Hampton Roads airport. Measure the distance (blue line) from this point of intersection to the Norfolk VORTAC (ORF)--that is, the little circle pictured on the Norfolk Airport.

Question 40
What weather is forecast for the Florida area just ahead of the stationary front during the first 12 hours?

a. Ceiling less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility less than 3 miles with continuous precipitation.
b. Ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles with continuous precipitation.
c. Ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles with intermittent precipitation.

You answered "Ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles with continuous precipitation.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-45, section 8 explains the scalloped line surrounds an area of ceiling 1000 to 3000 feet with visibility of 3 to miles. The solid line with hash mark in it depicts continuous precipitation covering half or more of the area.

Question 41
When a stressful situation is encountered in flight, an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out can cause a condition known as

a. hyperventilation
b. hypoxia
c. aerotitis

You answered "hyperventilation".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Hyperventilation, or an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out of the lungs, can occur subconsciously when a stressful situation is encountered in flight. As hyperventilation "blows off" excessive carbon dioxide from the body, a pilot can experience symptoms of lightheadedness, suffocation, drowsiness, tingling in the extremities, and coolness and react to them with even greater hyperventilation. Incapacitation can eventually result from incoordination, disorientation, and painful muscle spasms. Finally, unconsciousness can occur. The symptoms of hyperventilation subside within a few minutes after the rate and depth of breathing are consciously brought back under control. The buildup of carbon dioxide in the body can be hastened by controlled breathing in and out of a paper bag held over the nose and mouth.

Question 42
Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?

a. 250 knots.
b. 200 knots.
c. 288 knots.

You answered "250 knots.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Unless otherwise specified, the maximum indicated airspeed that a person may operate is 250 knots as specified in CFR 14 Part 91.117. 200 knots is incorrect--this is a speed limit that applies to operations near class B and in parts of class C airspace. 288 knots is likewise incorrect, though 250 knots = 288 MILES per hour.

Question 43
How will frost on the wings of an airplane affect takeoff performance?

a. Frost will cause the airplane to become airborne with a higher angle of attack, decreasing the stall speed.
b. Frost will change the camber of the wing, increasing its lifting capability.
c. Frost will disrupt the smooth flow of air over the wing, adversely affecting its lifting capability.

You answered "Frost will disrupt the smooth flow of air over the wing, adversely affecting its lifting capability.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Both of the incorrect answers make reference to notions that the presence of frost somehow increases performance. If this were true, enterprising individuals would sell cans of frost for you to apply to the wings before takeoff. ; Of course, this is not true. Acting as a sort of aerodynamic sandpaper, frost will disrupt the smooth airflow over the wing, adversely affecting its lifting capacity.

Question 44
What is the minimum number of Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites that are observable by a user anywhere on earth?

a. 6.
b. 5.
c. 4.

The correct answer is: "5."
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 1-1-21 states:The GPS constellation of 24 satellites is designed so that a minimum of five are always observable by a user anywhere on earth. The receiver uses data from a minimum of four satellites above the mask angle (the lowest angle above the horizon at which it can use a satellite). FAA-H-8083-3, Chapter 11 is more current and tells us: The space segment is composed of a constellation of 26 satellites orbiting approximately 10,900 NM above the earth. The operational satellites are often referred to as the GPS constellation. The satellites are not geosynchronous but instead orbit the earth in periods of approximately 12 hours. Each satellite is equipped with highly stable atomic clocks and transmits a unique code and navigation message. Transmitting in the UHF range means that the signals are virtually unaffected by weather although they are subject to line-of-sight limitations. The satellites must be above the horizon (as seen by the receiver's antenna) to be usable for navigation.

Question 45
What effect, if any, does high humidity have on aircraft performance?

a. It has no effect on performance.
b. It decreases performance.
c. It increases performance.

You answered "It decreases performance.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 61-23, chapter 4 states: Because of evaporation, the atmosphere always contains some moisture in the form of water vapor. This water vapor replaces molecules of dry air and because water vapor weighs less than dry air, any given volume of moist air weighs less-is less dense-than an equal volume of dry air. Usually during the operation of small airplanes, the effect of humidity is not considered when determining density altitude; but keep in mind that high humidity will decrease airplane performance which, among other things, results in longer takeoff distances and decreased angle of climb.

Question 46
A pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of hyperventilation by

a. closely monitoring the flight instruments to control the airplane.
b. slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a bag, or talking aloud.
c. increasing the breathing rate in order to increase lung ventilation.
d. drinking alcohol to calm him down

The correct answer is: "slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a bag, or talking aloud."
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 8-1-3 states:The symptoms of hyperventilation subside within a few minutes after the rate and depth of breathing are consciously brought back under control. The buildup of carbon dioxide in the body can be hastened by controlled breathing in and out of a paper bag held over the nose and mouth.

Question 47
No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the

a. ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.
b. flight visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.
c. ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.

You answered "ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.155 states: (d) Except as provided in §91.157 of this part, no person may take off or land an aircraft, or enter the traffic pattern of an airport, under VFR, within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport -- 1. Unless ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 statute miles; or 2. If ground visibility is not reported at that airport, unless flight visibility during landing or takeoff, or while operating in the traffic pattern is at least 3 statute miles.

Question 48
A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to

a. taxi only on taxiways and not cross runways.
b. return to the starting point on the airport.
c. taxi at a faster speed.

You answered "return to the starting point on the airport.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: A flashing white light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft on the ground is a signal that the pilot should return to the starting point (ramp where he/she is usually parked, most likely) on the airport.

Question 49
When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should state

a. fuel on board.
b. the aircraft identification or the pilot's name.
c. true airspeed.

You answered "the aircraft identification or the pilot's name.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The required background information for a telephone weather briefing consists of: " Type of flight planned" Aircraft number or pilot's name " Aircraft type " Departure point " Route of flight " Destination " Flight altitudes " ETD and ETE

Question 50
In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?

a. Partially stalled with one wing low.
b. Stalled.
c. In a steep diving spiral.

You answered "Stalled.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: A spin may be described as an aggravated stall that results in what is termed "autorotation" wherein the airplane follows a corkscrew path in a downward direction. In order for an aircraft to spin, there must be a stall. "Partially Stalled" is incorrect because a wing (or a relatively large portion thereof) needs to be totally stalled in order to spin. "Diving spiral" is likewise incorrect beause a diving spiral is not a spin, but a different maneuver. In short, you will not get into a spin if you don't get into a stall first!

Question 51
With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft?

a. Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.
b. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
c. Lighter-than-air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon.

You answered "Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: " CFR 14 1.1 defines class of aircraft to be a specialization of a particular category. So where "airplane" may be a category, "single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea" would be classes.; " Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and LTA are all aircraft categories with respect to the AIRMEN certification.; " Airship, hot air balloon and gas balloon may be classes of aircraft with regard to the AIRMEN certification but LTA is a category. so that answer is incorrect as well. Another silly mnemonic that works "Classy Men fly multiengine airplanes".

Question 52
What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?

a. Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.
b. Increase climb speed and increase RPM.
c. Reduce climb speed and increase RPM.

You answered "Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 61-23C, Chapter 2 states:When an airplane engine is operated on the ground, very little air flows past the cylinders (particularly if the engine is closely cowled) and overheating is likely to occur. Overheating may also occur during a prolonged climb, because the engine at this time is usually developing high power at relatively slow airspeed. Increasing the airspeed will provide greater airflow for better engine cooling.

Question 53
(Refer to figure 29, illustration 1.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft's position relative to the station?

a. East.
b. North.
c. South.

You answered "South.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: First, recognize that the Illustration 1 shows a VOR indicator with full left needle deflection and a TO indication. This is equivalent to Get in the habit of answering ALL of these VOR questions the same way. Learn the following system once and you can apply it for virtually all VOR questions. 1. Draw the VOR with north as up, and the four quadrants. 2. Draw an arrow with the letter "F" over it facing the heading at the top of the pictured instrument. So, in this case we draw it over 030o. Make sure the F faces DOWN, like the arrow. 3. Write the letters "R" and "L" from left to right at 90 degree points on each side of the compass rose from your F. Make sure that they face the same direction as your F. It's important that you practice this a few times so you don't get it backwards. 4. Draw a line ("CRS Line") through the arrow. This shows the line that would be if the needle on the instrument were centered. The L side of your CRS line corresponds to areas where the needle is to the left ("fly left" indication) and the R side of your CRS line corresponds to areas where the needle is to the right ("fly right" indication). Since our needle is deflected to the left, we know we are in the "L" half. 1. Split the area into two halves. The split should go through the center of the VOR and be perpendicular to your CRS line. We have drawn an ambiguity zone onto our drawing, though this is not needed for this particular question. 6. Now, write the word "From" in the half where your "F" is. Write the word "To" in the other half. 7. So where are we in relation to the VOR? TO half and the LEFT needle deflection half. We are somewhere roughly SOUTH of the station. SOUTH is the best answer.

Question 54
(Refer to figure 23.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from St. Maries Airport (area 4) to Priest River Airport (area 1). The wind is from 340° at 10 knots, and the true airspeed is 90 knots.

a. 327°.
b. 345°.
c. 320°.

You answered "327°.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Place a plotter on the chart, with the edge lined up on both St. Maries and Priest River, and read 346 true. Subtract the east variation of 18 degrees to determine a magnetic course of 328. The wind requires a correction to the right of 2 degrees giving us a magnetic heading of 330 degrees. The closest answer is 327 degrees.

Question 55
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?

a. 1,000 feet.
b. 500 feet.
c. 700 feet.

You answered "500 feet.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: in FAR 91.119 - Minimum safe altitudes: General, it states that:Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate an aircraft below the following altitudes: (c) Over other than congested areas. An altitude of 500 feet above the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas. In those cases, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. This is the least-restrictive 'close to any person vessel, vehicle, or structure' condition in the Federal Aviation Regulations, and hence 500 feet is the correct answer.

Question 56
What is density altitude?

a. The altitude read directly from the altimeter.
b. The height above the standard datum plane.
c. The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.

You answered "The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 61-23, chapter 3 defines:Density Altitude - This altitude is pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature variations. When conditions are standard, pressure altitude and density altitude are the same. Consequently, if the temperature is above standard, the density altitude will be higher than pressure altitude. If the temperature is below standard, the density altitude will be lower than pressure altitude. This is an important altitude because it is directly related to the aircraft's takeoff and climb performance.

Question 57
Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?

a. Class E.
b. Class C.
c. Class G.

You answered "Class C.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.130 states: (c) Communications. Each person operating an aircraft in Class C airspace must meet the following two-way radio communications requirements: 1. Arrival or through flight. Each person must establish two-way radio communications with the ATC facility (including foreign ATC in the case of foreign airspace designated in the United States) providing air traffic services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain those communications while within that airspace.

Question 58
If Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code

a. 0000.
b. 4096.
c. 1200.

You answered "1200.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 4-1-14 states:When receiving VFR radar advisory service, pilots should monitor the assigned frequency at all times. This is to preclude controllers' concern for radio failure or emergency assistance to aircraft under the controller's jurisdiction. VFR radar advisory service does not include vectors away from conflicting traffic unless requested by the pilot. When advisory service is no longer desired, advise the controller before changing frequencies and then change your transponder code to 1200, if applicable. Pilots should also inform the controller when changing VFR cruising altitude. Except in programs where radar service is automatically terminated, the controller will advise the aircraft when radar is terminated.

Question 59
(Refer to figure 16.) The Chicago FA forecast section is valid until the twenty-fifth at

a. 0800Z.
b. 1400Z.
c. 1945Z.

The correct answer is: "0800Z."
Reference: Locate the "CHIC FA" section towards the middle of the Area Forecast. You will see that there are two "valid until" periods given--Synopsis (and categorical outlook) until 251400 (1400Z on the 25th) and CLDS/WX until 250800. The key to correctly answering this question is in recognizing that "CLDS/WX" makes up the forecast. Forecasts are generally valid for 12 hours after the release of the FA. The synopsis and categorical outlook are generally good for an additional 6 hours after that, but are NOT part of the forecast.

Question 60
(Refer to figure 28.) An aircraft departs an airport in the mountain standard time zone at 1515 MST for a 2-hour 30-minute flight to an airport located in the Pacific standard time zone. What is the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport?

a. 1845 PST.
b. 1745 PST.
c. 1645 PST.

You answered "1645 PST.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: 1. Convert 1515MST to coordinated universal (Zulu) time by adding 7 hours. 1515 + 0700 = 2215Z; 2. Add the flight time of 0230 to get "2445Z" or 0045Z the next day. Convert "2445Z" to PST by subtracting 8 hours (0800). 2445 - 0800 = 1645PST. Avoid the temptation to try shortcuts in answering this sort of question. Covert departure time to Zulu time, add the duration of the flight, and then convert Zulu + duration to destination time.

Question 61
A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?

a. Class B.
b. Class C.
c. Class D.

You answered "Class D.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: A blue segmented circle on a sectional chart depicts class D airspace. Class D airspace represents that airspace around the smallest / least busy airports to have a control tower. Typical class D airspace is a simple cylinder of air of a radius of 4 or5 nm centered on the airport from the surface to 2500 feet AGL (above ground level). ; Class C airspace on a sectional chart is indicated with thick magenta (pinkish) lines. Class B airspace on a sectional chart is indicated with thick cyan (bluish) lines. ; Nantucket Memorial Airport Class D airspace shown above. The Class D extends from the surface to 2500' MSL, as indicated by the [25] symbol. Nantucket Airport is located slightly offcenter in the Class D ring as charted - this is slightly unusual. Remember, however, that while the "ideal" class D airspace is circular, in practice not all of it is. Specifically, some Class D airspaces where the airspace is Wedged right up against some other airspace, may take a different shape entirely.

Question 62
An aircraft's annual inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than

a. July 13, next year.
b. July 31, next year.
c. July 1, next year.

You answered "July 31, next year.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.409 states: a. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no person may operate an aircraft unless, within the preceding 12 calendar months, it has had -- 1. An annual inspection in accordance with part 43 of this chapter and has been approved for return to service by a person authorized by §43.7 of this chapter; or2. An inspection for the issuance of an airworthiness certificate in accordance with part 21 of this chapter. No inspection performed under paragraph (b) of this section may be substituted for any inspection required by this paragraph unless it is performed by a person authorized to perform annual inspections and is entered as an "annual" inspection in the required maintenance records. b. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, no person may operate an aircraft carrying any person (other than a crewmember) for hire, and no person may give flight instruction for hire in an aircraft which that person provides, unless within the preceding 100 hours of time in service the aircraft has received an annual or 100-hour inspection and been approved for return to service in accordance with part 43 of this chapter or has received an inspection for the issuance of an airworthiness certificate in accordance with part 21 of this chapter. The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours while en route to reach a place where the inspection can be done. The excess time used to reach a place where the inspection can be done must be included in computing the next 100 hours of time in service.

Question 63
Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive?

a. Aircraft maintenance records.
b. Airworthiness and Registration Certificates.
c. Airworthiness Certificate and Pilot's Operating Handbook.
d. Airworthiness Fashionable Clothes Check

The correct answer is: "Aircraft maintenance records."
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.417 states: a. Except for work performed in accordance with §§91.411 and 91.413, each registered owner or operator shall keep the following records for the periods specified in paragraph (b) of this section: 1. Records of the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration and records of the 100-hour, annual, progressive, and other required or approved inspections, as appropriate, for each aircraft (including the airframe) and each engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance of an aircraft. The records must include -- i. A description (or reference to data acceptable to the Administrator) of the work performed; and ii. The date of completion of the work performed; and iii. The signature, and certificate number of the person approving the aircraft for return to service. 2. Records containing the following information: i. The total time in service of the airframe, each engine, each propeller, and each rotor. ii. The current status of life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.iii. The time since last overhaul of all items installed on the aircraft which are required to be overhauled on a specified time basis. iv. The current inspection status of the aircraft, including the time since the last inspection required by the inspection program under which the aircraft and its appliances are maintained. v. The current status of applicable airworthiness directives (AD) including, for each, the method of compliance, the AD number, and revision date. If the AD involves recurring action, the time and date when the next action is required.

Question 64
(Refer to figure 23, area 2 and legend 1.) For information about the parachute jumping and glider operations at Silverwood Airport, refer to

a. the Airport/Facility Directory.
b. notes on the border of the chart.
c. the Notices to Airmen (NOTAM) publication.
d. The Furry Bear

You answered "the Airport/Facility Directory.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Sectional Chart legend directs us to the Airport/Facility Directory for details regarding the parachute jumping and glider operations at airports with those symbols. ; While this question explicitly directs you towards Legend 1, not all questions involving charts do. Nevertheless, Legend 1 is always available for you to look at during the exam, and you should always be aware that this is at your disposal.

Question 65
(Refer to figure 26, area 3.) If Redbird Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

a. 122.95 MHz.
b. 126.35 MHz.
c. 120.3 MHz.

You answered "120.3 MHz.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 4-1-9 states: If an airport has a tower and it is temporarily closed, or operated on a part-time basis and there is no FSS on the airport or the FSS is closed, use the CTAF to self-announce your position or intentions. Unless otherwise specified (which would be very rare), the tower frequency (in this case 120.3) becomes the CTAF. Do not confuse this with 122.95, which is the UNICOM frequency.

Question 66
All operations within Class C airspace must be in

a. an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability.
b. compliance with ATC clearances and instructions.
c. accordance with instrument flight rules.

You answered "an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: In order to operate in class C airspace you need to have a 4096-code transponder with mode C capability. Additionally, you need to have radio contact with the controlling facility. You do NOT need to have an ATC clearance to enter class C airspace as you do for class B airspace. That mentioned above is correct. We think that testing this misconception is the point of the FAA's wrong answer "compliance with ATC clearances and instructions", though it probably could be worded a bit more clearly. "Accordance with Instrument Flight Rules" is simply wrong. You as a student or certificated VFR pilot are welcome to fly in class C airspace as long as you have a mode C transponder and radio contact is established prior to entry.

Question 67
What clouds have the greatest turbulence?

a. Cumulonimbus.
b. Towering cumulus.
c. Nimbostratus.

You answered "Cumulonimbus.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-6 states:Cumulonimbus are the ultimate manifestation of instability. They are vertically developed clouds of large dimensions with dense boiling tops often crowned with thick veils of dense cirrus (the anvil). Nearly the entire spectrum of flying hazards are contained in these clouds including violent turbulence. They should be avoided at all times!

Question 68
A lighted heliport may be identified by a

a. green, yellow, and white rotating beacon.
b. blue lighted square landing area.
c. flashing yellow light.

You answered "green, yellow, and white rotating beacon.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: A lighted heliport can by identified by a green, yellow, and white rotating beacon. The other answers are simply incorrect.

Question 69
Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic course of 175°? The terrain is less than 1,000 feet.

a. 5,500 feet.
b. 4,500 feet.
c. 5,000 feet.

You answered "5,500 feet.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: When cruising (in cruise flight) on a magnetic course (note: magnetic course--not magnetic heading) of 0 degrees through 179 degrees VFR above 3000' AGL and below 18000' MSL, the pilot shall maintain an altitude of an odd thousand number of feet + 500 (i.e.: 3,500, 5,500, 7,500, etc.). Similarly, when flying on a magnetic course of 180 through 359 degrees at similar altitudes, the pilot shall maintain an altitude of an even thousand feet + 500 (i.e.: 4,500, 6,500, 8,500, etc)

Question 70
(Refer to figure 21, area 1.) What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International?

a. Mode C transponder and omnireceiver.
b. Mode C transponder, omnireceiver, and DME.
c. Mode C transponder and two-way radio.

You answered "Mode C transponder and two-way radio.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Sectional Chart Legend tells us Norfolk International Airport lies within Class C airspace. The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 3-2-4 list the following required equipment in Class C airspace: (a) Two-way radio, and (b) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, an operable radar beacon transponder with automatic altitude reporting equipment.

Question 71
(Refer to figure 2.) If an airplane weighs 4,500 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 45° banked turn while maintaining altitude?

a. 6,750 pounds.
b. 7,200 pounds.
c. 4,500 pounds.

You answered "6,750 pounds.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The airplane structure is required to support (the weight of the airplane) * (the load factor imposed on the airplane); From figure 2, we see that the load factor (G force) for a 45 degree banked level turn is 1.414. 1.414 * 4,500 = 6,363 pounds. The closest (and best) answer, therefore, is 6,750 pounds, which the FAA seems to have come up with by approximating that 1.5 = 1.414.

Question 72
(Refer to figure 26, area 4.) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is

a. 3,200 feet MSL.
b. at the surface.
c. 4,000 feet MSL.

You answered "4,000 feet MSL.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Approximately 15 NM south-southeast of the Hicks airport, you see the blue symbol 110/40. This indicates the upper and lower limits of the Class B airspace in that sector. In this case the floor of the airspace is 4,000 MSL.

Question 73
When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft

a. below and upwind from the heavy aircraft.
b. below and downwind from the heavy aircraft.
c. above and upwind from the heavy aircraft.

You answered "above and upwind from the heavy aircraft.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-6A, Chapter 9 states:When using the same runway as a heavier aircraft: (3) if departing behind another departing aircraft, takeoff only if you can become airborne before reaching the midpoint of his takeoff roll and only if you can climb fast enough to stay above his flight path.

Question 74
The pilot in command is responsible for ensuring that each person on board applicable U. S. registered aircraft is briefed and instructed on how and when to

a. fasten and unfasten their seat belt and shoulder harness.
b. adjust their seat.
c. operate the fire extinguisher.

You answered "fasten and unfasten their seat belt and shoulder harness. ".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: 91.107 - No pilot may takeoff a U.S.-registered civil aircraft (except a free balloon that incorporates a basket or gondola, or an airship type certificated before November 2, 1987) unless the pilot in command of that aircraft ensures that each person on board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten that person's safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness.

Question 75
The person directly responsible for the pre-launch briefing of passengers for a flight is the

a. safety officer.
b. ground crewmember.
c. pilot in command.

You answered "pilot in command.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.3 states: (a) The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.

Question 76
Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?

a. Air temperature lower than standard.
b. Atmospheric pressure lower than standard.
c. Air temperature warmer than standard.

You answered "Air temperature warmer than standard.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-6A, Chapter 3 states: Effect of temperature on altitude. When air is warmer than average, you are higher than your altimeter indicates. When temperature is colder than average, you are lower than indicated. When flying from warm to cold air at a constant indicated altitude, you are losing true altitude.

Question 77
The only cloud type forecast in TAF reports is

a. Cumulonimbus.
b. Nimbostratus.
c. Scattered cumulus.
d. The one that looks like a cotton ball and is soft like a pillow.

You answered "Cumulonimbus.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-45, section 4 states:If cumulonimbus clouds are expected at the airport, the contraction "CB" is appended to the cloud layer which represents the base of the cumulonimbus cloud(s). Cumulonimbus clouds are the only cloud type forecast in TAFs.

Question 78
(Refer to figure 9, area C.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane with a left quartering tailwind?

a. Left aileron down, elevator down.
b. Left aileron up, elevator neutral.
c. Left aileron down, elevator neutral.

You answered "Left aileron down, elevator down.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: In this case, you want the wind to strike the upwind (left) aileron and push the left wing down to the ground. At the same time you want the wind to strike the elevator and force the tail to the ground to keep from flipping the airplane over and to aid tailwheel steering. Climb into a headwind and dive away from a tailwind.

Question 79
Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are

a. squall line thunderstorms.
b. warm front thunderstorms.
c. steady-state thunderstorms.

You answered "squall line thunderstorms.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-6A, Chapter 11 states:A squall line is a non-frontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms. Often it develops ahead of a cold front in moist, unstable air, but it may develop in unstable air far removed from any front. The line may be too long to easily detour and too wide and severe to penetrate. It often contains severe steady-state thunderstorms and presents the single most intense weather hazard to aircraft. It usually forms rapidly, generally reaching maximum intensity during the late afternoon and the first few hours of darkness. Squall Line

Question 80
For the aerotow of a glider that weighs 700 pounds, which towrope tensile strength would require the use of safety links at each end of the rope?

a. 850 pounds.
b. 1,450 pounds.
c. 1,040 pounds.

You answered "1,450 pounds.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.309 states: a. No person may operate a civil aircraft towing a glider unless -- 1. The pilot in command of the towing aircraft is qualified under §61.69 of this chapter; 2. The towing aircraft is equipped with a tow-hitch of a kind, and installed in a manner, that is approved by the Administrator; 3. The towline used has breaking strength not less than 80 percent of the maximum certificated operating weight of the glider and not more than twice this operating weight. However, the towline used may have a breaking strength more than twice the maximum certificated operating weight of the glider if - i. A safety link is installed at the point of attachment of the towline to the glider with a breaking strength not less than 80 percent of the maximum certificated operating weight of the glider and not greater than twice this operating weight. ii. A safety link is installed at the point of attachment of the towline to the towing aircraft with a breaking strength greater, but not more than 25 percent greater, than that of the safety link at the towed glider end of the towline and not greater than twice the maximum certificated operating weight of the glider.

Question 81
(Refer to figure 24, area 3.) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?

a. 1,700 feet MSL.
b. 1,300 feet MSL.
c. 1,300 feet AGL.

You answered "1,300 feet MSL.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Class C airspace upper and lower limits are indicated by the symbol 41/13 about 8 NM east/northeast of the Savannah Airport. In this case, the upper limit is 4,100 feet MSL and the lower limit is 1,300 feet MSL. Note that airspace limits for class B, C, and D are always indicated on charts in feet MSL not AGL.

Question 82
An approved chair-type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding

a. 365 days.
b. 180 days.
c. 120 days.

You answered "120 days.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.307 states: (a) No pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a parachute that is available for emergency use to be carried in that aircraft unless it is an approved type and -- 1. If a chair type (canopy in back), it has been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding 120 days; or 2. If any other type, it has been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger -- i. Within the preceding 120 days, if its canopy, shrouds, and harness are composed exclusively of nylon, rayon, or other similar synthetic fiber or materials that are substantially resistant to damage from mold, mildew, or other fungi and other rotting agents propagated in a moist environment; or ii. Within the preceding 60 days, if any part of the parachute is composed of silk, pongee, or other natural fiber, or materials not specified in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section.

Question 83
If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with

a. too much power and with the mixture set too lean.
b. higher-than-normal oil pressure
c. the mixture set too rich.

You answered "too much power and with the mixture set too lean.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal ranges, then the engine has been operating with too much power with the mixture set too lean. Higher than normal oil pressure would not likely itself cause the engine oil temperate to read too high. A too rich mixture may cause fouling of spark plugs and other issues, but excessively hot temperatures are more attributable to the mixture being too lean rather than too rich.

Question 84
Hazardous attitudes occur to every pilot to some degree at some time. What are some of these hazardous attitudes?

a. Poor risk management and lack of stress management.
b. Antiauthority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and invulnerability.
c. Poor situational awareness, snap judgments, and lack of a decision making process.

You answered "Antiauthority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and invulnerability.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: ADM addresses five hazardous attitudes: " Anti-authority " Impulsivity " Invulnerability" Macho" Resignation

Question 85
To get a complete weather briefing for the planned flight, the pilot should request

a. a standard briefing.
b. an abbreviated briefing.
c. a general briefing.

You answered "a standard briefing.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Three types of preflight weather briefings are available: " A Standard briefing is for when a pilot wishes for complete available information and/or has not yet gotten any previous weather information for the flight. A standard weather briefing will normally consist of: Adverse conditions, VFR-NOT-RECOMMENDED statement, if necessary, Synopsis, Current conditions, En route conditions, Destination forecast, Winds aloft, Notices to Airmen, ATC Delays, Request for PIREPS (Pilot Weather Reports), Mention of EFAS (Enroute Flight Advisory Service), Additional info on request." An Abbreviated briefing is used to supplement or update a previously gotten briefing or other disseminated weather information or fill a request for specific information." An Outlook briefing is generally for when the proposed flight is more than 6 hours in the future. An outlook briefing will normally be limited to: Adverse conditions, synopsis, forecast information

Question 86
The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and

a. either stable or unstable air.
b. unstable air containing an excess of condensation nuclei.
c. unstable, moist air.

You answered "unstable, moist air.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-6A states:The degree of stability of the lifted air determines whether cloudiness will be predominately stratiform or cumuliform. If the warm air overriding the front is stable, stratiform clouds develop. If the warm air is unstable, cumuliform clouds develop.

Question 87
Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights?

a. Magnetic compass.
b. Sensitive altimeter and landing light.
c. VHF radio communications equipment.

The correct answer is: "Magnetic compass. "
Reference: A magnetic direction indicator is required for a standard category aircraft operating under night VFR.

Question 88
If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to

a. lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed.
b. lean the mixture.
c. apply carburetor heat.

You answered "lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: " If the correct grade of fuel is used, the engine may be detonating because of excessively hot engine temperatures. To alleviate this, the first step is to help ensure good airflow over the engine. Do this by lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed. " Leaning the mixture will cause engine temperatures to potentially increase, not decrease, so this is not correct. " The application of carburetor heat is done if there is carburetor icing, which does not appear to be the case here.

Question 89
Which statement best defines hypoxia?

a. An abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed.
b. A state of oxygen deficiency in the body.
c. A condition of gas bubble formation around the joints or muscles.
d. Being too fashionable to fly.

You answered "A state of oxygen deficiency in the body.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 8-1-2 states:Hypoxia is a state of oxygen deficiency in the body sufficient to impair functions of the brain and other organs. Hypoxia from exposure to altitude is due only to the reduced barometric pressures encountered at altitude, for the concentration of oxygen in the atmosphere remains about 21 percent from the ground out to space.

Question 90
(Refer to figure 53.) Which type radar service is provided to VFR aircraft at Lincoln Municipal?

a. Sequencing to the primary Class C airport, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts.
b. Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and standard separation.
c. Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and conflict resolution so that radar targets do not touch, or 1,000 feet vertical separation.

You answered "Sequencing to the primary Class C airport, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Lincoln Municipal is the principal Class C airport in the given class C airspace. The excerpt shows the Class C airspace is active from 1130Z to 0630Z.The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 3-2-4 lists the services in Class C airspace as: Air Traffic Services: When two-way radio communications and radar contact are established, all participating VFR aircraft are: 1. Sequenced to the primary airport. 2. Provided Class C services within the Class C airspace and the Outer Area. 3. Provided basic radar services beyond the outer area on a workload permitting basis. This can be terminated by the controller if workload dictates. Aircraft Separation: Separation is provided within the Class C airspace and the Outer Area after two-way radio communications and radar contact are established. VFR aircraft are separated from IFR aircraft within the Class C airspace by any of the following: 1. Visual separation. 2. 500 feet vertical; except when operating beneath a heavy jet. 3. Target resolution. From paragraph 4-1-17. Terminal Radar Services for VFR Aircraft Basic Radar Service: In addition to the use of radar for the control of IFR aircraft, all commissioned radar facilities provide the following basic radar services for VFR aircraft: a. Safety alerts, b. Traffic advisories., c. Limited radar vectoring (on a workload permitting basis)., d. Sequencing at locations where procedures have been established for this purpose and/or when covered by a Letter of Agreement.

Question 91
(Refer to figure 27, area 2.) The day VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown, after departing and at or below 700 feet AGL are

a. 1 mile and clear of clouds.
b. 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
c. 3 miles and clear of clouds.

You answered "1 mile and clear of clouds. ".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The town of Cooperstown falls in the Magenta "class G to 700 feet" area around the associated airport. The visibility and cloud clearance requirements, therefore, are 1 mile and clear of clouds. Of course, a prudent pilot would probably not operate over a town below 700 feet except for the purposes of takeoff/landing in any circumstances, and flying in 1 mile visibility can be very dangerous.

Question 92
When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot

a. may continue taxiing.
b. should not cross the lines without ATC clearance.
c. should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines.

You answered "should not cross the lines without ATC clearance.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The side with the continuous lines is the non-runway (airport) side. For example in this image: This aircraft is holding short of the runway (has NOT entered the runway). The best answer to this question is that a pilot should never cross onto the runway side without ATC clearance - be it a takeoff clearance or a clearance to taxi to another runway which inolves crossing over a runway. The other answers are not as good. "May continue taxiing" might be true, but only at an uncontrolled airport. "Should continue taxiing until all parts of the aicraft have crossed the line" sounds like an answer that you might put if you got it backwards and thought that the airplane is on the runway and is getting off (in which case that would be correct). The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 2-3-5 states: HOLDING POSITION MARKINGS, Runway Holding Position Markings: For runways these markings indicate where an aircraft is supposed to stop. They consist of four yellow lines two solid and two dashed, spaced six inches apart and extending across the width of the taxiway or runway. The solid lines are always on the side where the aircraft is to hold.

Question 93
If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated

a. by any private pilot.
b. for compensation or hire.
c. with passengers aboard.

You answered "with passengers aboard.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.407 states: " (b) No person may carry any person (other than crewmembers) in an aircraft that has been maintained, rebuilt, or altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics or substantially affected its operation in flight until an appropriately rated pilot with at least a private pilot certificate flies the aircraft, makes an operational check of the maintenance performed or alteration made, and logs the flight in the aircraft records. " (c) The aircraft does not have to be flown as required by paragraph (b) of this section if, prior to flight, ground tests, inspection, or both show conclusively that the maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or alteration has not appreciably changed the flight characteristics or substantially affected the flight operation of the aircraft.

Question 94
(Refer to figure 41.) Determine the approximate ground roll distance required for takeoff. OAT 90 °F Pressure altitude 2,000 ft Takeoff weight 2,500 lb Headwind component 20 kts

a. 850 feet.
b. 650 feet.
c. 1,000 feet.

You answered "850 feet.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: 1. Enter the chart from the bottom at 90 degrees F, read up (red line) to the 2000 ft line. 2. Go right (blue line) to the reference line. 3. Parallel the lines (along the green line) down to where the 2,500lb (red) line intersects 4. Go right (red line) to the 2nd reference line 5. Parallel the lines (along the blue line) down to where the 20KT (red) line intersects 6. Go right (green line) to read 650'.

Question 95
Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged?

a. Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed.
b. Airspeed only.
c. Altimeter only.

You answered "Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 61-23C, chapter 2 states: An alternate source for static pressure is provided in some airplanes in the event the static ports become clogged. This source usually is vented to the pressure inside the cockpit. Because of the venturi effect of the flow of air over the cockpit, this alternate static pressure is usually lower than the pressure provided by the normal static air source. When the alternate static source is used, the following differences in the instrument indications usually occur: the altimeter will indicate higher than the actual altitude, the airspeed will indicate greater than the actual airspeed, and the vertical speed will indicate a climb while in level flight.

Question 96
How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?

a. The throttle controls engine RPM as registered on the tachometer and the mixture control regulates the power output.
b. The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates a constant blade angle.
c. The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.

You answered "The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 61-23C, Chapter 2 states: An airplane equipped with a controllable-pitch propeller has two controls: (1) a throttle control and (2) a propeller control. The throttle controls the power output of the engine which is registered on the manifold pressure gauge. The manifold pressure gauge is a simple barometer that measures the air pressure in the engine intake manifold in inches of mercury. It is color coded with a green arc indicating the normal operating range. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM. The RPM is registered on the tachometer. The pilot can set the throttle control and propeller control at any desired manifold pressure and RPM setting within the engine operating limitation.

Question 97
(Refer to figure 53.) What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at Lincoln Municipal during the hours when the tower is not in operation?

a. Contact UNICOM on 122.95 MHz for traffic advisories.
b. Monitor ATIS for airport conditions, then announce your position on 122.95 MHz.
c. Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz.

You answered "Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The excerpt shows the CTAF frequency of 118.5. The CTAF is the Common Traffic Advisory Frequency - this is the frequency to use at a (normally) tower controlled field when the tower is not in operation. The incorrect answers stem from the confusion that some pilots have in understanding the difference between UNICOM and CTAF. UNICOM is the unified communications frequency for an airport over which you can, for example, typically call the FBO to request fuel. The problem stems from the fact that at many uncontrolled airfields, the UNICOM and the CTAF are the same frequency, and it is not uncommon to hear pilots and flight instructors say things like "self-announce on the UNICOM frequency" when they really should, to be technically correct, say "self announce on the CTAF." (Maybe "CTAF" is just harder to pronounce!).At a controlled field where the tower is closed, the difference becomes important because if you self-announce on 122.95 (by the way - 122.95 is the standard UNICOM frequency at controlled airports), other pilots won't hear you. Additionally, "contact UNICOM for traffic advisories" is incorrect because UNICOM has no role whatsoever in providing traffic information. One final note: one of the wrong answers advises you to "monitor ATIS." While it is true that since the tower is closed the ATIS broadcasts will not be updated regularly (the ATIS broadcast will say something to the effect that "Lincoln Municipal tower is now closed...."), occasionally the ATIS broadcast might still have had some important information recorded by the tower personnel before they left that would be of interest to pilots who are arriving during the time the tower is closed. So, it's not a bad idea to listen to this if possible - in other words, monitor ATIS, and then montor airport traffic and self-announce your position on th CTAF of 118.5.

Question 98
A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits

a. two quick, white flashes between green flashes.
b. white and green alternating flashes.
c. green, yellow, and white flashes.

You answered "two quick, white flashes between green flashes.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits two quick, white flashed between green flashes. White and green alternating flashes--this applies to civilian airports. Green, yellow, and white flashes applies to heliports.

Question 99
An aircraft departs an airport in the eastern daylight time zone at 0945 EDT for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the central daylight time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?

a. 1345Z.
b. 1445Z.
c. 1545Z.

You answered "1545Z.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: That the destination airport is in the central daylight time zone is of no consequence as far as this question goes. 1. Convert 0945EDT to Coordinated Universal (Zulu) time by adding 4 hours. 0945 + 0400 = 1345Z.2. Add the two hour flight duration. 1345Z + 0200 = 1545Z

Question 100
What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?

a. Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace.
b. Advise the nearest FSS of the altitude changes.
c. Fly away from the centerline of the airway before changing altitude.

You answered "Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 4-4-14 states: Before Takeoff. Prior to taxiing onto a runway or landing area in preparation for takeoff, pilots should scan the approach areas for possible landing traffic and execute the appropriate clearing maneuvers to provide them a clear view of the approach areas. b. Climbs and Descents: During climbs and descents in flight conditions which permit visual detection of other traffic, pilots should execute gentle banks, left and right at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about them. c. Straight and Level: Sustained periods of straight and level flight in conditions which permit visual detection of other traffic should be broken at intervals with appropriate clearing procedures to provide effective visual scanning.

100 Random Questions 500-600

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Last modified: 06/17/09

100 Random Questions 500-600

Send mail to someone@microsoft.com with questions or comments about this web site. Last modified: 06/17/09

Send mail to someone@microsoft.com with questions or comments about this web site.
Last modified: 06/17/09