Private Pilot Testing Site

Question 1
If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be

a. engine roughness.
b. a drop in oil temperature and cylinder head temperature.
c. loss of RPM.

You answered "loss of RPM.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The first indication of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor would be a loss of RPM. The corrective action of applying carburetor heat would initially drop the RPM further by enriching the fuel/air mixture, but the RPM should thereafter climb as the ice blockage is melted. When the ice is fully melted, turn off the carburetor heat as required to de-enrich the fuel/air mixture to re-attain expected RPM.

Question 2
(Refer to figure 24.) While en route on Victor 185, a flight crosses the 248° radial of Allendale VOR at 0953 and then crosses the 216° radial of Allendale VOR at 1000. What is the estimated time of arrival at Savannah VORTAC?

a. 1036.
b. 1023.
c. 1028.

You answered "1028.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Locate the stated locations on Figure 24 (blue and red arrow). These also happen to be named intersections (which you, as a VFR pilot, don't need to be aware of, but since they happen to be on the chart, we'll mention them).The aircraft crossed MILEN intersection at 0953 and DOVER intersection at 1000. Using a plotter, we see the distance from MILEN to DOVER is 10nm (purple line). The aircraft's ground rate, therefore, is 10nm in 7 (1000 - 0953) minutes. We similarly measure the distance from DOVER intersection to the Savannah VORTAC and find this to be approximately 40nm. If 10nm took 7 minutes, then 40nm will take 28. Adding 28 to the 1000 time where MILEN intersection was crossed, we compute an ETA at the Savannah VORTAC of 1028.

Question 3
Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data?

a. An abbreviated briefing.
b. A supplemental briefing.
c. An outlook briefing.

You answered "An abbreviated briefing.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Three types of preflight weather briefings are available: " An Abbreviated briefing (the correct answer here) is used to supplement or update a previously gotten briefing or other disseminated weather information or fill a request for specific information. " A Standard briefing is for when a pilot wishes for complete available information and/or has not yet gotten any previous weather information for the flight. A standard weather briefing will normally consist of: o Adverse conditions o a VFR-NOT-RECOMMENDED statement, if necessaryo Synopsis o Current conditionso En route conditionso Destination forecasto Winds aloft etc. " An Outlook briefing is generally for when the proposed flight is more than 6 hours in the future. An outlook briefing will normally be limited to o Adverse conditions o Synopsiso Forecast information " There is no such thing as a "supplemental" briefing in FAA terminology.

Question 4
Should it become necessary to handprop an airplane engine, it is extremely important that a competent pilot

a. be in the cockpit and call out all commands.
b. call "contact" before touching the propeller.
c. be at the controls in the cockpit.

You answered "be at the controls in the cockpit.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Because of the hazards involved in hand starting airplane engines, every precaution should be exercised. It is extremely important that a competent pilot be at the controls in the cockpit. Also, the person turning the propeller should be thoroughly familiar with the technique. The following are additional suggestions to aid in increasing the safety factor while hand starting airplanes.

Question 5
(Refer to figure 49.) What is the difference between area A and area E on the airport depicted?

a. "A" may be used for taxi and takeoff; "E" may be used only as an overrun.
b. "A" may be used only for taxiing; "E" may be used for all operations except landings.
c. "A" may be used for all operations except heavy aircraft landings; "E" may be used only as an overrun.

You answered ""A" may be used for taxi and takeoff; "E" may be used only as an overrun.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Area A may be used for taxi and takeoffs. AIM paragraph 2-3-3-h-2 states that displaced thresholds may be used for takeoffs as well as taxi.

Question 6
What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?

a. The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily.
b. Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity.
c. All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.

You answered "All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 8-1-5 states:Atmospheric illusions: Rain on the windscreen can create the illusion of greater height, and atmospheric haze the illusion of being at a greater distance from the runway. The pilot who does not recognize these illusions will fly a lower approach. Penetration of fog can create the illusion of pitching up. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will steepen the approach, often quite abruptly.

Question 7
Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found?

a. In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks.
b. In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
c. On the Airworthiness Certificate.

You answered "In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.9 states: a. Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no person may operate a civil aircraft without complying with the operating limitations specified in the approved Airplane or Rotorcraft flight manual, markings, and placards, or as otherwise prescribed by the certificating authority of the country of registry.

Question 8
Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator, the National Transportation Safety Board, or any

a. authorized representative of the Department of Transportation.
b. person in a position of authority.
c. federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.

You answered "federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The pertinent section of the FARs states: Inspection of certificate. Each person who holds an airman certificate, medical certificate, authorization, or license required by this part must present it for inspection upon a request from:1. The Administrator2. An authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board; or 3. Any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officerTherefore federal, state, or local law enforcement officer is correct. An "authorized representative of the Department of Transportation" may indeed be one of the people to whom a medical certificate needs be shown (the reading is fairly ambiguous), but "federal, state, or local law enforcement officer" is the better, more general answer. "Person in a position of authority" is too broad to be correct--there are plenty of people in positions of authority to whom you do not need to show your pilot certificate.The police can ask you for your driver's license if you speed--they can likewise ask you for your pilot/medical certificate.

Question 9
(Refer to figure 31, illustration 8.) If the magnetic bearing TO the station is 135°, the magnetic heading is

a. 135°.
b. 360°.
c. 270°.

The correct answer is: "360°."
Reference: This question is not as simple as it may at first appear. The answer is NOT arrived at simply by reading the value at the top of the instrument. Remember that this is a FIXED CARD ADF. This means that N (North, 360o) stays on top of the dial NO MATTER WHAT THE ACTUAL AIRCRAFT HEADING IS. We have answered this question by superimposing a HI (Heading indicator) atop the fixed card ADF. We did this by placing the 135o of the heading indicator at the point of the arrow. In other words, making sure that it is a 135o magnetic bearing to the NDB. Then, we get the answer by reading the magnetic heading off the top of the HI - North, or 360 degrees. The question setters have made this question particularly easy, since as it turns out they claim that 135 magnetic happens to be where the arrow is pointing to, which is 135 degrees from up on the fixed card ADF. Don't let this fool you into thinking that all fixed-card ADF questions are so easy.

Question 10
(Refer to figure 38.) Determine the total distance required to land. OAT 32 °F Pressure altitude 8,000 ft Weight 2,600 lb Headwind component 20 kts Obstacle 50 ft

a. 850 feet.
b. 1,750 feet.
c. 1,400 feet.

You answered "1,400 feet.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Look at the Figure. 1. Convert 32F to 0C using the conversion scale and find 0C OAT on the OAT scale. 2. Find the place where 0C OAT intersects the 8000' pressure altitude line 3. Move horizontally from that point to the reference line. 4. Draw a (green) line roughly parallel to the three diagonal lines beginning with your point on the reference line. 5. Find the point where the green line intersects the given weight of 2600 lbs (red line). 6. Move horizontally from that point to the second reference line.(blue line) 7. Draw a (purple) line parallel to the 3 or 4 headwind lines, again, starting from where our horizontal line intersects the second reference line. 8. Find the spot where the purple line intersects our headwind component of 20 knots (red line). 9. Go horizontally to the third reference line. 10. As our obstacle is 50 feet high, draw a (orange) line roughly parallel to the multiple diagonal obstacle height lines there, again, starting at the reference line. 11. This should lead you to an indication of roughly 1400 feet on the rightmost axis. A lot of work, yes--but important to do. Try experimenting with this chart and seeing how changes in headwind / tailwind and weight can at times dramatically alter the amount of runway required.

Question 11
(Refer to figure 27, area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown below 700 feet AGL are

a. 3 miles and clear of clouds.
b. 1 mile and clear of clouds.
c. 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.

You answered "1 mile and clear of clouds.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The town of Cooperstown falls in the Magenta "class G to 700 feet" area around the associated airport. The visibility and cloud clearance requirements, therefore, are 1 mile and clear of clouds. Most pilots would probably not operate over a town below 700 feet except for the purposes of takeoff/landing in any circumstances, and flying in 1 mile visibility can be very dangerous.

Question 12
Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will

a. prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
b. force any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines to the engine.
c. prevent expansion of the fuel by eliminating airspace in the tanks.

You answered "prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is good practice because it prevents moisture from forming by eliminating airspace in the tanks. The "force any existing water to the top of the tank" answer is incorrect, because water will sink, not rise in aviation fuel. The "prevent expansion of the fuel by eliminating airspace in the tanks" is incorrect (and, fairly nonsensical on several levels if you stop and think about it). Your aircraft likely has several fuel vents that drain excess fuel when the tank is full and the fuel expands due to temperature increases or other reasons.

Question 13
Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only

a. when the associated control tower is in operation.
b. when the weather minimums are below basic VFR.
c. when the associated Flight Service Station is in operation.

You answered "when the associated control tower is in operation.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Airports with a part-time control tower are classified as class D airspace only when the tower is in operation. When the tower is closed, the airspace reverts to uncontrolled (generally class E) status. Many class D airports are closed from 10-11PM to 5-6 AM (reference the Airport / Facilities Directory for information about a specific airport). When the tower is closed, use uncontrolled field radio procedures at the airport (i.e. "Springfield traffic ...")

Question 14
To obtain a continuous transcribed weather briefing, including winds aloft and route forecasts for a cross-country flight, a pilot should monitor a

a. regularly scheduled weather broadcast on a VOR frequency
b. regularly scheduled weather broadcast on a VOR frequency regularly scheduled weather broadcast on a VOR frequency
c. Transcribed Weather Broadcast (TWEB) on an NDB or a VOR facility.

You answered "Transcribed Weather Broadcast (TWEB) on an NDB or a VOR facility.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: TWEBs are available typically over an NDB or VOR facility. There is no such thing as a "regularly scheduled broadcast on a VOR facility" (though a few things in aviation come close to that, the term is included here just to throw you off). Similarly, ATIS provides airport status information including local conditions, but not weather briefing information and route forecasts for cross-country flight.

Question 15
An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this airplane would be

a. a longer takeoff run.
b. stalling at higher-than-normal airspeed.
c. difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition.

You answered "difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: It becomes more difficult to recover from a stall when the aircraft is loaded such that the CG is located aft of the CG limit. You can visualize that recovering from a stall requires nose down elevator pressure, where an aft CG is trying to bring the tail down. The other answers are both incorrect. An aircraft loaded with its CG too far to the aft will have a shorter, not longer takeoff run. Similarly, it will stall at a lower than normal airspeed because of the CG aft condition causes the airplane to fly at a lesser angle of attack.

Question 16
(Refer to figure 24.) What is the estimated time en route for a flight from Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2) to Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1)? The wind is from 290° at 18 knots and the true airspeed is 85 knots. Add 2 minutes for climb-out.

a. 35 minutes.
b. 39 minutes.
c. 44 minutes.

You answered "39 minutes.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The distance between Claxton-Evans Co. and Hampton Varnville is 56.5 NM. To determine groundspeed, we use our E6B calculator. 1. Determine the magnetic course from Claxton-Evans Co to Hampton Varnville. Use a straightedge to draw a line from the center of one airport to the center of the other. Let's read the reciprocal magnetic heading - 045 degrees. 2. Now we turn to the E6B. o Put the True Course of 045o at the top.o Adjust the slider so that our True Airspeed of 85 knots is indicated at the center.o Draw a dot 18 knots below the 85 center dot to correspond to the wind speed.o Rotate the dial so that our wind direction of 290o is indicated at the top.o Read the resulting groundspeed - we see that is is 94 knots The E-6B shows us a groundspeed of 94 knots. 56.5 NM at 94 knots takes 36 minutes. Add the 2 minutes for climb-out for a total time of 38 minutes. The closest answer is 39 minutes.

Question 17
What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?

a. The aircraft on the left shall give way.
b. Each aircraft shall give way to the right.
c. The faster aircraft shall give way.

You answered "The aircraft on the left shall give way.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: In theory (which is what the answer asks for), things are supposed to work like a four-way stop sign in the US. Note how the red light on the left wingtip of the aircraft on the right acts as as a sort of stop sign to the other aircraft. This is codified under FAR 91.113 where it is stated: Converging: When aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude (except head-on, or nearly so), the aircraft to the other's right has the right-of-way. In practice, since you can never be sure that the other aircraft has you in sight, it is prudent to always act as if he does not.While you're likely to have the right idea in your head when you take the test, this is an easy question to mess up because of the appealing way in which incorrect answer B is worded. Remember to take your time when taking the test and you'll do fine.

Question 18
(Refer to figure 50.) Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing.

a. Left-hand traffic and Runway 18.
b. Right-hand traffic and Runway 18.
c. Left-hand traffic and Runway 22.

The correct answer is: "Right-hand traffic and Runway 18."
Reference: The traffic pattern indicators in Figure 50 indicate right traffic for runway 18. The wind tetrahedron indicates that the wind is ideally suited for runway 22, as landing with a direct headwind is ideal (and landing with a direct tailwind is worst). However, the Xs on the ends of runway 4/22 indicate that the runway is closed. The next best choice is Runway 18, where we will get a partial headwind (and some crosswind from the right). The 'X' on the ends of runway 4/22 indicate that runway is closed. The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 4-3-3 states: The segmented circle system consists of the following components: 1. The segmented circle: Located in a position affording maximum visibility to pilots in the air and on the ground and providing a centralized location for other elements of the system. 2. The wind direction indicator. A wind cone, wind sock, or wind tee installed near the operational runway to indicate wind direction. The large end of the wind cone/wind sock points into the wind as does the large end (cross bar) of the wind tee. In lieu of a tetrahedron and where a wind sock or wind cone is collocated with a wind tee, the wind tee may be manually aligned with the runway in use to indicate landing direction. These signaling devices may be located in the center of the segmented circle and may be lighted for night use. Pilots are cautioned against using a tetrahedron to indicate wind direction. 3. The landing direction indicator: A tetrahedron is installed when conditions at the airport warrant its use. It may be used to indicate the direction of landings and takeoffs. A tetrahedron may be located at the center of a segmented circle and may be lighted for night operations. The small end of the tetrahedron points in the direction of landing. Pilots are cautioned against using a tetrahedron for any purpose other than as an indicator of landing direction. Further, pilots should use extreme caution when making runway selection by use of a tetrahedron in very light or calm wind conditions as the tetrahedron may not be aligned with the designated calmwind runway. At airports with control towers, the tetrahedron should only be referenced when the control tower is not in operation. Tower instructions supersede tetrahedron indications. 4. Landing strip indicators: Installed in pairs as shown in the segmented circle diagram and used to show the alignment of landing strips. 5. Traffic pattern indicators: Arranged in pairs in conjunction with landing strip indicators and used to indicate the direction of turns when there is a variation from the normal left traffic pattern. (If there is no segmented circle installed at the airport, traffic pattern indicators may be installed on or near the end of the runway.)

Question 19
With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during

a. flight in turbulent air.
b. all flight conditions.
c. taxi, takeoffs, and landings.

You answered "taxi, takeoffs, and landings.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: It's good general practice to have passengers wear seat belts as much as possible during the entire flight and especially during flight in turbulent air. However, the relevant regulations state only that passengers must wear safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing. Hence, this is the correct answer.

Question 20
The section of the Area Forecast entitled 'VFR CLDS/ WX' contains a general description of

a. forecast sky cover, cloud tops, visibility, and obstructions to vision along specific routes.
b. clouds and weather which cover an area greater than 3,000 square miles and is significant to VFR flight operations.
c. cloudiness and weather significant to flight operations broken down by states or other geographical areas.

The correct answer is: "clouds and weather which cover an area greater than 3,000 square miles and is significant to VFR flight operations."
Reference: AC 00-45, section 4 states: The VFR CLDS/WX section is usually several paragraphs long. The breakdown may be by states or by well-known geographical areas. The specific forecast section gives a general description of clouds and weather which cover an area greater than 3,000 square miles and is significant to VFR flight operations.

Question 21
Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (AD's) are complied with?

a. Repair station.
b. Owner or operator.
c. Mechanic with inspection authorization (IA).

You answered "Owner or operator.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.403 states: a. The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition, including compliance with part 39 of this chapter.

Question 22
How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?

a. Inward, upward, and around each tip.
b. Inward, upward, and counterclockwise.
c. Outward, upward, and around each tip.

You answered "Outward, upward, and around each tip.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 7-3-3 states: Lift is generated by the creation of a pressure differential over the wing surface. The lowest pressure occurs over the upper wing surface and the highest pressure under the wing. This pressure differential triggers the roll up of the airflow aft of the wing resulting in swirling air masses trailing downstream of the wing tips. After the roll up is completed, the wake consists of two counter rotating cylindrical vortices. Most of the energy is within a few feet of the center of each vortex, but pilots should avoid a region within about 100 feet of the vortex core.

Question 23
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number?

a. 60.
b. 70.
c. 90.

You answered "60.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-2.11 appendix 1 states: The advisory circular numbers relate to the FAR subchapter titles and correspond to the Parts, and when appropriate, to the specific sections of the Federal Aviation Regulations. Subject: 60 AIRMEN; 61 Certification: Pilots and Flight Instructors; 63 Certification: Flight Crewmembers Other Than Pilots; 67 Medical Standards and Certification

Question 24
The takeoffs and landings required to meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane

a. may be touch and go or full stop.
b. must be touch and go.
c. must be to a full stop.

You answered "must be to a full stop.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Reference FAR Sec. 61.57 - Recent flight experience: Pilot in command: a. General experience. 1. Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, no person may act as a pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers or of an aircraft certificated for more than one pilot flight crewmember unless that person has made at least three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days, and -- i. The person acted as the sole manipulator of the flight controls; and ii. The required takeoffs and landings were performed in an aircraft of the same category, class, and type (if a type rating is required), and, if the aircraft to be flown is an airplane with a tailwheel, the takeoffs and landings must have been made to a full stop in an airplane with a tailwheel.

Question 25
(Refer to figure 18.) Of what value is the Weather Depiction Chart to the pilot?

a. For determining frontal trends and air mass characteristics.
b. For determining general weather conditions on which to base flight planning.
c. For a forecast of cloud coverage, visibilities, and frontal activity.

You answered "For determining general weather conditions on which to base flight planning.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-45, section 6 states:The weather depiction chart is computer-prepared from Surface Aviation Observations (SAO). The weather depiction chart gives a broad overview of the observed flying category conditions at the valid time of the chart. This chart begins at 01Z each day, is transmitted at three hour intervals, and is valid at the time of the plotted data.

Question 26
Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds of 40 knots or greater blow

a. parallel to a mountain peak, and the air is stable.
b. across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable.
c. down a mountain valley, and the air is unstable.

You answered "across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-6 states: Always anticipate possible mountain wave turbulence when strong winds of 40 knots or greater blow across a mountain or ridge and the air is stable.

Question 27
When an air traffic controller issues radar traffic information in relation to the 12-hour clock, the reference the controller uses is the aircraft`s

a. true course.
b. ground track.
c. magnetic heading.

You answered "ground track.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Since traffic advisories are issued based on the aircraft ground track, we need to determine the effect of wind.

Question 28
Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately-rated pilot who holds at least a

a. Private Pilot Certificate.
b. Commercial Pilot Certificate and a mechanic's certificate.
c. Commercial Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.

You answered "Private Pilot Certificate.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.407 states: No person may carry any person (other than crewmembers) in an aircraft that has been maintained, rebuilt, or altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics or substantially affected its operation in flight until an appropriately rated pilot with at least a private pilot certificate flies the aircraft, makes an operational check of the maintenance performed or alteration made, and logs the flight in the aircraft records.

Question 29
(Refer to figure 30, illustration 1.) What outbound bearing is the aircraft crossing?

a. 180°.
b. 150°.
c. 030°.

You answered "030°.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Since this is a movable card ADF, the aircraft is heading 330 degrees. The MAGNETIC bearing To the station is simply read under the arrow. In this case it is 210 degrees. The tail of the pointer shows the MAGNETIC bearing FROM the station of 030.

Question 30
(Refer to figure 53.) Where is Loup City Municipal located with relation to the city?

a. East approximately 10 miles.
b. Northeast approximately 3 miles.
c. Northwest approximately 1 mile.

You answered "Northwest approximately 1 mile.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Airport / Facility Directory, just after the airport identifier, tells us the airport is located "1 NW" which means 1 mile northwest.

Question 31
Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

a. Maximum growth rate of the clouds.
b. Precipitation beginning to fall.
c. The appearance of an anvil top.

You answered "Precipitation beginning to fall.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-6A states:Precipitation beginning to fall from the cloud base is your signal that a downdraft has developed and a cell has entered the mature stage. Cold rain in the downdraft retards compressional heating, and the downdraft remains cooler than surrounding air. Therefore, its downward speed is accelerated and may exceed 2,500 feet per minute.

Question 32
Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during

a. all flight conditions.
b. takeoffs and landings.
c. flight in turbulent air.

You answered "takeoffs and landings.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: "Each required flight crewmember of a U.S.-registered civil aircraft shall, during takeoff and landing, keep his or her shoulder harness fastened while at his or her assigned duty station." There are exceptions listed: one, if the crewmember station does not have shoulder harnesses, or two, if the use of a shoulder harness would prevent a crewmember from performing a necessary task.General Aviation aircraft (with scant exception) are not designed like modern automobiles. People have suffered severe and even fatal injuries from what otherwise would have been very minor takeoff and landing incidents because they didn't have their shoulder harnesses and seat-belts fastened. Answers A and C are incorrect because shoulder harnesses are required only for takeoffs and landings, not all flight conditions.

Question 33
In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?

a. Radio operator's permit, and repair and alteration forms.
b. Operating limitations and Registration Certificate.
c. Aircraft engine and airframe logbooks, and owner's manual..

You answered "Operating limitations and Registration Certificate.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.9 states: (b) No person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft -- 1. For which an Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual is required by §21.5 of this chapter unless there is available in the aircraft a current, approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual or the manual provided for in §121.141(b); and 2. For which an Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual is not required by §21.5 of this chapter, unless there is available in the aircraft a current approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof. CFR 14 Part 91.203 states: a. Except as provided in §91.715, no person may operate a civil aircraft unless it has within it the following: 1. An appropriate and current airworthiness certificate. Each U.S. airworthiness certificate used to comply with this subparagraph (except a special flight permit, a copy of the applicable operations specifications issued under §21.197(c) of this chapter, appropriate sections of the air carrier manual required by parts 121 and 135 of this chapter containing that portion of the operations specifications issued under §21.197(c), or an authorization under §91.611) must have on it the registration number assigned to the aircraft under part 47 of this chapter. However, the airworthiness certificate need not have on it an assigned special identification number before 10 days after that number is first affixed to the aircraft. A revised airworthiness certificate having on it an assigned special identification number, that has been affixed to an aircraft, may only be obtained upon application to an FAA Flight Standards district office. 2. An effective U.S. registration certificate issued to its owner or, for operation within the United States, the second duplicate copy (pink) of the Aircraft registration Application as provided for in §47.31(b), or a registration certificate issued under the laws of a foreign country. b. No person may operate a civil aircraft unless the airworthiness certificate required by paragraph (a) of this section or a special flight authorization issued under §91.715 is displayed at the cabin or cockpit entrance so that it is legible to passengers or crew. ARROWs Fly Air Worthiness; Certificate Registration Certificate;Radio Station License (For International Flights) ; Operating Handbook ;Weight & Balance

Question 34
Why is frost considered hazardous to flight?

a. Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoils, thereby decreasing lift.
b. Frost slows the airflow over the airfoils, thereby increasing control effectiveness.
c. Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings, thereby decreasing lifting capability.

You answered "Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings, thereby decreasing lifting capability.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-6A, Chapter 10 states:Frost does not change the basic aerodynamic shape of the wing, but the roughness of its surface spoils the smooth flow of air thus causing a slowing of the airflow. This slowing of the air causes early air flow separation over the affected airfoil resulting in a loss of lift. A heavy coat of hard frost will cause a 5 to 10 percent increase in stall speed. Even a small amount of frost on airfoils may prevent an aircraft from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed.

Question 35
What is indicated when a current CONVECTIVE SIGMET forecasts thunderstorms?

a. Moderate or severe turbulence.
b. Moderate thunderstorms covering 30 percent of the area.
c. Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers.

You answered "Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-45, section 4 states:Convective SIGMETs are issued in the conterminous U.S. for any of the following: 1. Severe thunderstorm due to: a. surface winds greater than or equal to 50 knots b. hail at the surface greater than or equal 3/4 inches in diameter c. tornadoes. 2. Embedded thunderstorms.3. A line of thunderstorms. 3. A line of thunderstorms. 4. Thunderstorms greater than or equal to VIP level 4 affecting 40% or more of an area at least 3000 square miles. Any Convective SIGMET implies severe or greater turbulence, severe icing and low level wind shear. A Convective SIGMET may be issued for any convective situation which the forecaster feels is hazardous to all categories of aircraft.

Question 36
(Refer to figure 28.) An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0845 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?

a. 1345Z.
b. 1445Z.
c. 1645Z.

You answered "1645Z.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: That the destination airport is in the mountain standard time zone is of no consequence as far as this question goes. 1. Convert 0845CST to Coordinated Universal (Zulu) time by adding 6 hours. 0845 + 0600 = 1445Z. 2. Add the two hour flight duration. 1445Z + 0200 = 1645Z

Question 37
Select the four flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft.

a. Aircraft power, pitch, bank, and trim.
b. Starting, taxiing, takeoff, and landing.
c. Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.

You answered "Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: FAA H-8083-3, Chapter 4 states:Basic flight maneuvers include the four fundamentals of flight: straight and level, turns, climbs, and descents. Controlled flight consists of either one, or a combination of these basic maneuvers. Proper control of an airplane is the result of the pilot knowing when and how to make pitch, bank, and power changes.

Question 38
The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are

a. lift, weight, thrust, and drag.
b. lift, gravity, power, and friction.
c. lift, weight, gravity, and thrust.

You answered "lift, weight, thrust, and drag.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 61-23, Chapter 1 states: Among the aerodynamic forces acting on an airplane during flight, four are considered to be basic because they act upon the airplane during all maneuvers. These basic forces are: Lift, Gravity (Weight), Thrust, and Drag.

Question 39
Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?

a. When at sea level under standard conditions.
b. If the altimeter has no mechanical error.
c. When at 18,000 feet MSL with the altimeter set at 29.92.

You answered "When at sea level under standard conditions.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 61-23, chapter 3 defines:Indicated Altitude - That altitude read directly from the altimeter (uncorrected) after it is set to the current altimeter setting. True Altitude - The true vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level-the actual altitude. (Often expressed in this manner; 10,900 feet MSL.) Airport, terrain, and obstacle elevations found on aeronautical charts are true altitudes. Therefore, they are equal under standard conditions.

Question 40
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is

a. 1,000 feet.
b. 2,000 feet.
c. 1,500 feet.

You answered "2,000 feet.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.155 requires the following weather for this operation: Cloud clearance - 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal.

Question 41
A weather briefing that is provided when the information requested is 6 or more hours in advance of the proposed departure time is

a. a forecast briefing.
b. an outlook briefing.
c. a prognostic briefing.

The correct answer is: "an outlook briefing."
Reference: The FAA has decided that there are three types of briefings: standard, abbreviated, and outlook. "forecast" and "prognostic" briefings simply don't exist in the terminology.

Question 42
In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if

a. a left turn is entered from a west heading.
b. an aircraft is decelerated while on an east or west heading.
c. an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.

You answered "an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The WE ANDS mnemonic reminds us that when we're flying West or East, that if we Accelerate to expect the compass to indicate a turn to the North and that when we Decelerate to expect a turn to the South. WE ANDS says nothing about if we're on a north or south heading initially, and from this we get our correct answer.WE ANDS - when flying West or East, if you Accelerate the compass will show a turn to the North. If you Decelerate, the compass will show a turn to the South.

Question 43
VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished

a. at a higher airspeed.
b. with a steeper descent.
c. the same as during daytime.

You answered "the same as during daytime.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: FAA-H-8083-3, Chapter 10 states:Every effort should be made to maintain the recommended airspeeds and execute the approach and landing in the same manner as during the day. A low, shallow approach is definitely inappropriate during a night operation. The altimeter and VSI should be constantly cross-checked against the airplane's position along the base leg and final approach.

Question 44
(Refer to figure 26.) At which airports is fixed-wing Special VFR not authorized?

a. Addison and Redbird.
b. Fort Worth Meacham and Fort Worth Spinks.
c. Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dallas Love Field.

You answered "Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dallas Love Field.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The indication "NO SVFR" on the sectional chart indicates that fixed-wing special VFR is not authorized. On figure 26, "NO SVFR" is indicated for Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dallas Love Field.

Question 45
While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red light followed by a flashing red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should

a. discontinue the approach, fly the same traffic pattern and approach again, and land.
b. abandon the approach, circle the airport to the right, and expect a flashing white light when the airport is safe for landing.
c. exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing.

You answered "exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: An alternating red and green light signal, when directed to a pilot on the ground or in the air, tells that pilot to exercise extreme caution. A flashing red signal directed to a pilot in the air indicates that the airport is unsafe for landing. Here is the complete list of light gun signals:Color On the Ground In the Air

Question 46
(Refer to figure 48.) Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is

a. above the glide slope.
b. on the glide slope.
c. below the glide slope.

You answered "on the glide slope.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: A red over white light indicates that the aircraft is on the glide slope. " Red over white, you're alright (on the glideslope) " White over White, you'll fly all night (too high)" Red over Red, you're dead (too low)

Question 47
Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs

a. at all tower controlled airports within Class D airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR.
b. at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions.
c. at all tower controlled airports only when weather conditions are less than VFR.

You answered "at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Unless otherwise authorized, you must get explicit landing and takeoff clearances at all tower controlled fields via two-way radio communication. "Otherwise authorized" includes getting the equivalent information by light gun signal or through other communication with the tower (for example, if something has been worked out where an aircraft with inoperative radios needs to be flown to a place of repair). In all cases, the bottom line is the same---you need to get some form of "cleared for takeoff" and/or "cleared to land" from the tower.

Question 48
During the run-up at a high-elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action?

a. Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.
b. Reduce manifold pressure to control detonation.
c. Taxi back to the flight line for a maintenance check.

You answered "Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Remember: The application of carburetor heat ENRICHES the fuel-air mixture because the application of heat makes the air in the carburetor less dense. The roughness experienced then (and the "high elevation airport" line should further hint this), is most likely to be caused by operating with a mixture too rich. Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.Reducing manifold pressure is not the correct answer. You need to generate enough power to takeoff, so that's not a viable solution. You could taxi back, but you should only do this after you've checked the "obvious" problem of operating with a mixture too rich.

Question 49
As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will

a. remain the same regardless of altitude.
b. decrease as the true airspeed decreases.
c. decrease as the true airspeed increases.

You answered "remain the same regardless of altitude.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The airspeed indicator is a sensitive, differential pressure gauge which measures and shows promptly the difference between (1) pitot, or impact pressure, and (2) static pressure, the undisturbed atmospheric pressure at level flight. These two pressures will be equal when the aircraft is parked on the ground in calm air. When the aircraft moves through the air, the pressure on the pitot line becomes greater than the pressure in the static lines. This difference in pressure is registered by the airspeed pointer on the face of the instrument, which is calibrated in miles per hour (MPH), knots, or both. Since this pressure differential is directly proportional to the differential acting on the wing, the stall speed remains unchanged by altitude.

Question 50
In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to

a. review traffic control light signal procedures.
b. check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT).
c. determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.

You answered "determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: FAR 91.103 states:Each pilot in command shall, before beginning a flight, become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. This information must include--...(b) For any flight, runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the following takeoff and landing distance information:Therefore, "Determine the runway lengths.." is the correct answer.At first glance, this might seem like "just another rule." As it turns out, it's a particularly good one to consciously follow, especially if you live in high-altitude areas where density altitude factors can greatly increase the runway required for takeoff.

Question 51
(Refer to figure 50.) The arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area

a. is usable for taxiing, takeoff, and landing.
b. may be used only for taxiing.
c. cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff.

You answered "cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The portions of the north-south runway (with the arrows on them) may be used for taxiing and takeoff, but not landing. The arrowed portion is called a displaced threshold. There are a number of possible reasons for this. Two of the more likely include: " if an aircraft landed on the arrows, if it were on a normal glideslope, it would come unacceptably close to an obstruction on the approach path. " The area with the arrows has not been designed to accept the increased stresses of aircraft landing.

Question 52
(Refer to figure 24, area 3.) The top of the group obstruction approximately 11 nautical miles from the Savannah VORTAC on the 340° radial is

a. 400 feet AGL.
b. 455 feet MSL.
c. 432 feet MSL.

You answered "455 feet MSL.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: These towers are 455 feet MSL, and there is no height given for AGL.

Question 53
What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "Impulsivity"?

a. Do it quickly to get it over with.
b. Not so fast, think first.
c. It could happen to me.

You answered "Not so fast, think first.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: This question is a fairly easy one if you don't skip or misunderstand the meaning of the word "antidote." An antidote is something that you take to counter a poison--in this case, the poisonous attitude of 'impulsivity,' also known as get-there-itis. "Do it quickly to get it over with" is an example of impulsivity, not an antidote to it. You will pick this incorrect answer if you are impulsive and fail to read the question carefully! "It could happen to me" is an idea that can be used to counter "invulnerability" or "macho" attitudes, but this is not the best antidote for "impulsivity." Some of you reading this may initially find such questions to be pedantic and "beneath you" in the sense that this stuff seems fairly obvious. While the content may indeed at some level be obvious, training yourself to act upon such "obvious" information is a whole different story. Try to consciously consider the "antidote" attitude when you find yourself getting into a hazardous attitude trap.

Question 54
What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?

a. Poor visibility and smooth air.
b. Stratiform clouds and showery precipitation.
c. Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation.

The correct answer is: "Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation."
Reference: AC 00-6, chapter 8 lists the characteristics of unstable air as: " Cumuliform clouds, " showery precipitation, " rough air (turbulence), and " good visibility (except in blowing obstructions).

Question 55
(Refer to figure 16.) What sky condition and visibility are forecast for upper Michigan in the eastern portions after 2300Z?

a. Ceiling 1,000 feet overcast and 3 to 5 statute miles visibility.
b. Ceiling 1,000 feet overcast and 3 to 5 nautical miles visibility.
c. Ceiling 100 feet overcast and 3 to 5 statute miles visibility.

You answered "Ceiling 1,000 feet overcast and 3 to 5 statute miles visibility.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Towards the bottom of the FA, you should see the area "UPR MI" (Upper Michigan). In this, find subsection ERN PTSN (Eastern Portions). The forecast after 23Z (2300 Zulu) calls for Overcast 010 (1000 feet) and Visibility 3-5 SM.

Question 56
(Refer to figure 27, area 4.) The CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Jamestown Airport is

a. 122.0 MHz.
b. 123.0 MHz.
c. 123.6 MHz.

You answered "123.0 MHz.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The lower right portion of the airport information block on the Sectional Chart shows the CTAF of 123.0. This can also be found in the Communications section of the Airport / Facility Directory.

Question 57
(Refer to figures 33 and 34.) What is the maximum amount of baggage that can be carried when the airplane is loaded as follows? Front seat occupants 387 lb Rear seat occupants 293 lb Fuel 35 gal

a. 63 pounds.
b. 220 pounds.
c. 45 pounds.

You answered "45 pounds.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: First, we compute the weight of the fuel by multiplying 35 gallons by 6 lbs / gallon to get 210 lbs. We then compute the total weight of the occupants and the fuel. 387 + 293 + 210 = 890 lbs. We add to this the 2015 lb empty weight of the airplane (from Fig 33, bottom right) to get the total "thus far loaded" weight of the airplane of 2905. The maximum gross weight of the airplane (regardless of what is loaded where) is 2950 lbs. Hence, we have 2950 - 2905 = 45 left for baggage.

Question 58
Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight-and-level flight?

a. Climbs.
b. Stalls.
c. Turns.

You answered "Turns.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Remember: load factor equals G-force. G force is an accelerative force, not a steady force. You may recall from high school physics that an object traveling in a circular course (as a turn) is in a state of constant acceleration. Turns increase the G-force; turns increase the load factor. Climbs are aerodynamically the same as straight as level flight as far as acceleration goes, so there is no increase in load factor (exception: you can feel changes in load factors with excessively rapid pitchups or pitchdowns, but turns is still the best answer). Stalls likewise do not increase the load factor.

Question 59
(Refer to figure 9, area B.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane into a right quartering headwind?

a. Right aileron up, elevator up.
b. Right aileron up, elevator down.
c. Right aileron down, elevator neutral.

You answered "Right aileron up, elevator up.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The presence of moderate to strong headwinds and/or a strong propeller slipstream makes the use of the elevator necessary to maintain control of the pitch attitude while taxiing.This becomes apparent when considering the lifting action that may be created on the horizontal tail surfaces by either of those two factors. Please note the graphic is for a nose wheel equipped airplane. The elevator should be up in a tail-wheel aircraft when there is a headwind.

Question 60
(Refer to figure 39.) Determine the total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle. Pressure altitude 7,500 ft Headwind 8 kts Temperature 32°F Runway Hard surface

a. 1,506 feet.
b. 1,004 feet.
c. 1,205 feet.

You answered "1,004 feet.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: In the 7,500 foot column, read a ground roll of 1255 feet over a 50 foot obstacle. Note 1 tells us to subtract 10 percent for each 4 knots of headwind. 1255 minus 251 equals 1004 feet.

Question 61
Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?

a. The pilot in command.
b. A certificated aircraft mechanic.
c. The owner or operator.

You answered "The pilot in command.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.7 states: a. No person may operate a civil aircraft unless it is in an airworthy condition. b. The pilot in command of a civil aircraft is responsible for determining whether that aircraft is in condition for safe flight. The pilot in command shall discontinue the flight when unairworthy mechanical, electrical, or structural conditions occur.

Question 62
(Refer to figure 27, areas 4 and 2; and figure 29.) The VOR is tuned to Jamestown VOR, and the aircraft is positioned over Cooperstown Airport . Which VOR indication is correct?

a. 2.
b. 6.
c. 9.

You answered "6.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: On Figure 27, Cooperstown is approximately 028 degrees from the Jamestown VOR. In illustration 6, the OBS is set to 030, the CDI is 2 degrees off with a FROM indication. This puts us on the 028 radial FROM the station.

Question 63
Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) program?

a. Military pilots.
b. Recreational pilots only.
c. Student pilots.

You answered "Student pilots.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Student pilots may not participate in LAHSO operations. If, as a student pilot, you are told that you are "cleared to land 33 hold short of 24", an appropriate response would be "student pilot, unable land and hold short, please advise when full length is available."

Question 64
Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?

a. Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear.
b. The excessive consumption of alcohol.
c. An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen.

You answered "Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 8-1-3 states:Hyperventilation, or an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out of the lungs, can occur subconsciously when a stressful situation is encountered in flight.

Question 65
If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only

a. 60 days after the date of the move.
b. 30 days after the date of the move.
c. 90 days after the date of the move.

You answered "30 days after the date of the move.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: 30 days is not a lot of time. But, you must notify the FAA of any change in your permanent mailing address within this period. Do not forget! In the past, the FAA has come down harshly on people who have let this slip. As of this writing, the address to send notice of address change is:FAA - Airman Certification Branch;Box 25082;Oklahoma City, OK 73125However, as this is potentially subject to change, for your protection you are encouraged to double check this with a reliable source before mailing anything.

Question 66
(Refer to figure 23, area 2; and figure 32.) What is the correct UNICOM frequency to be used at Coeur D'Alene to request fuel?

a. 122.8 MHz.
b. 135.075 MHz.
c. 122.1/108.8 MHz

You answered "122.8 MHz.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The lower right portion of the airport information block on the Sectional Chart shows the CTAF of 122.8. This can also be found in the Communications section of the Airport / Facility Directory Excerpt in Figure 32 which lists the CTAF/UNICOM frequency of 122.8. The absence of additional information, at an uncontrolled field, the CTAF and UNICOM frequencies are the same.

Question 67
To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the

a. direction of motion of the aircraft parallel to the runway.
b. longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion.
c. downwind wing lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the aircraft to drift.

You answered "longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Touchdown in a Drift or Crab At times the pilot may correct for wind drift by crabbing on the final approach. If the roundout and touchdown are made while the airplane is drifting or in a crab, it will contact the ground while moving sideways. This will impose extreme side loads on the landing gear, and if severe enough, may cause structural failure. The most effective method to prevent drift in primary training aircraft is the wing-low method. This technique keeps the longitudinal axis of the airplane aligned with both the runway and the direction of motion throughout the approach and touchdown.There are three factors that will cause the longitudinal axis and the direction of motion to be misaligned during touchdown: drifting, crabbing, or a combination of both. If the pilot has not taken adequate corrective action to avoid drift during a crosswind landing, the main wheels' tire tread offers resistance to the airplane's sideward movement in respect to the ground. Consequently, any sidewise velocity of the airplane is abruptly decelerated, with the result that the inertia force is as shown above. This creates a moment around the main wheel when it contacts the ground, tending to overturn or tip the airplane. If the windward wingtip is raised by the action of this moment, all the weight and shock of landing will be borne by one main wheel. This could cause structural damage.

Question 68
What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority?

a. Take no special action since you are pilot in command.
b. File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested.
c. File a report to the FAA Administrator, as soon as possible.

You answered "File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Pilots need only submit a detailed, written report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance when requested by ATC. This report should be filed within 48 hours of the request. Some pilots, unfortunately, are hesitant to declare an emergency when circumstances dictate that they should because of a fear of the ensuing paperwork. In truth, the procedures are usually very streamlined, and often there is no paperwork at all.

Question 69
Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?

a. If prior permission is received from the Federal Aviation Administration.
b. Only in an emergency.
c. If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface.

You answered "If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.15 reads: No pilot in command of a civil aircraft may allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property. However, this section does not prohibit the dropping of any object if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property.

Question 70
(Refer to figure 39.) Determine the total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle. Pressure altitude 5,000 ft Headwind 8 kts Temperature 41 °F Runway Hard surface

a. 837 feet.
b. 956 feet.
c. 1,076 feet.

You answered "956 feet.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: In the 5,000 foot column, read a ground roll of 1195 feet over a 50 foot obstacle. Note 1 tells us to subtract 10 percent for each 4 knots of headwind. 1195 minus 239 equals 956 feet.

Question 71
Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition?

a. Pilot-in-command.
b. Owner or operator.
c. Mechanic.

You answered "Owner or operator.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 61-23C states: The registered owner of an aircraft is responsible for certain items such as: Having a current Airworthiness Certificate and Certificate of Aircraft Registration in the aircraft.Maintaining the aircraft in an airworthy condition including compliance with all applicable Airworthiness Directives. Assuring that maintenance is properly recorded. Keeping abreast of current regulations concerning the operation and maintenance of the aircraft. Notifying the FAA Civil Aviation Registry immediately of any change of permanent mailing address, or of the sale or export of the aircraft, or of the loss of U.S. citizenship.

Question 72
(Refer to figures 33 and 34.) Determine if the airplane weight and balance is within limits. Front seat occupants 415 lb Rear seat occupants 110 lb Fuel, main tanks 44 gal Fuel, aux. tanks 19 gal Baggage 32 lb

a. Weight within limits, CG out of limits.
b. 19 pounds overweight, CG out of limits forward.
c. 19 pounds overweight, CG within limits.

You answered "Weight within limits, CG out of limits.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The total weight is 2,950, which is at the maximum according to Figure 33. The total moment is 238,965. Divide the total moment (238,965) by the total weight (2,950) to get the CG of 81.005 inches. This is forward of the limit shown in Figure 33.

Question 73
If there is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to land, which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the landing approach?

a. Precipitation static.
b. Wind-shear turbulence.
c. Steady rain.

The correct answer is: "Wind-shear turbulence."
Reference: AC 00-6A, Chapter 11 states:Don't land or take off in the face of an approaching thunderstorm. A sudden wind shift or low level turbulence could cause loss of control.

Question 74
(Refer to figure 51.) The segmented circle indicates that a landing on Runway 26 will be with a

a. left-quartering headwind.
b. right-quartering headwind.
c. right-quartering tailwind.

You answered "right-quartering headwind.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: First, notice the arrow that indicates North is up on the figure. The wind sock shows the wind is coming from approximately 310 degrees. The favored runway is 26. You should expect a right quartering headwind. Runways are normally numbered in relation to their magnetic heading rounded off to the nearest 10 degrees. A runway with a magnetic heading of 250o is Runway 25. A runway facing due magnetic north (approx 355o-005o) is Runway 36. A runway facing due magnetic west is runway 27. If you know the numbering at one end of a runway, you can always calculate (or know) the number at the other end, as it is always a fixed reciprocal. For example, a runway with 18 painted on one end will always have 36 on the other. With time and experience, you will come to recognize other such pairs from memory. For now, you can practice figuring out the reciprocal of a given runway. Try figuring out the reciprocals (other ends) of Runays 7, 11, and 32 (answer at the bottom of this explanation). From the above, you might expect the indicated runway to be numbered as Runway 27, not Runway 26. That's a fair enough observation - we'd think that too, as the runway shown appears to be perpendicular to the north indicator. The reason the FAA phrased this question as "Runway 26" is for you to figure out what runway most closely matches. Below you can see the whole picture, though with the runway numbered not as 26, but as 27. The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 4-3-3 states: The segmented circle system consists of the following components:1. The segmented circle: Located in a position affording maximum visibility to pilots in the air and on the ground and providing a centralized location for other elements of the system. 2. The wind direction indicator. A wind cone, wind sock, or wind tee installed near the operational runway to indicate wind direction. The large end of the wind cone/wind sock points into the wind as does the large end (cross bar) of the wind tee. In lieu of a tetrahedron and where a wind sock or wind cone is collocated with a wind tee, the wind tee may be manually aligned with the runway in use to indicate landing direction. These signaling devices may be located in the center of the segmented circle and may be lighted for night use. Pilots are cautioned against using a tetrahedron to indicate wind direction. 3. The landing direction indicator: A tetrahedron is installed when conditions at the airport warrant its use. It may be used to indicate the direction of landings and takeoffs. A tetrahedron may be located at the center of a segmented circle and may be lighted for night operations. The small end of the tetrahedron points in the direction of landing. Pilots are cautioned against using a tetrahedron for any purpose other than as an indicator of landing direction. Further, pilots should use extreme caution when making runway selection by use of a tetrahedron in very light or calm wind conditions as the tetrahedron may not be aligned with the designated calmwind runway. At airports with control towers, the tetrahedron should only be referenced when the control tower is not in operation. Tower instructions supersede tetrahedron indications. 4. Landing strip indicators: Installed in pairs as shown in the segmented circle diagram and used to show the alignment of landing strips. 5. Traffic pattern indicators: Arranged in pairs in conjunction with landing strip indicators and used to indicate the direction of turns when there is a variation from the normal left traffic pattern. (If there is no segmented circle installed at the airport, traffic pattern indicators may be installed on or near the end of the runway.) Runway 7 - Runway 25, Runway 11 - Runway 29, Runway 32 - Runway 14

Question 75
What information is provided by the Radar Summary Chart that is not shown on other weather charts?

a. Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms.
b. Ceilings and precipitation between reporting stations.
c. Types of clouds between reporting stations.

You answered "Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-45, section 7 states: The radar summary chart aids in preflight planning by identifying general areas and movement of precipitation and/or thunderstorms. Radar detects ONLY drops or ice particles of precipitation size, it DOES NOT detect clouds and fog. Therefore, the absence of echoes does not guarantee clear weather, and cloud tops may be higher than the tops detected by radar. The chart must be used in conjunction with other charts, reports, and forecasts.

Question 76
Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?

a. 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
b. Sunset to sunrise.
c. End of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.

You answered "Sunset to sunrise.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.209 states: No person may: (a) During the period from sunset to sunrise (or, in Alaska, during the period a prominent unlighted object cannot be seen from a distance of 3 statute miles or the sun is more than 6 degrees below the horizon) -- 1. Operate an aircraft unless it has lighted position lights.

Question 77
Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should

a. check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications.
b. announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF.
c. visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.

You answered "visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 4-4-14 states:Operators of pilot training programs are urged to adopt the following practices:1. Pilots undergoing flight instruction at all levels should be requested to verbalize clearing procedures (call out "clear" left, right, above, or below) to instill and sustain the habit of vigilance during maneuvering. 2. High-wing airplane: momentarily raise the wing in the direction of the intended turn and look.3. Low-wing airplane: momentarily lower the wing in the direction of the intended turn and look. 4. Appropriate clearing procedures should precede the execution of all turns including chandelles, lazy eights, stalls, slow flight, climbs, straight and level, spins, and other combination maneuvers.

Question 78
What measurement can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere?

a. Actual lapse rate.
b. Atmospheric pressure.
c. Surface temperature.

You answered "Actual lapse rate.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The lapse rate is an indicator of stability in the atmosphere. A high lapse rate is an indicator of unstable air, while a low lapse rate indicates stability.

Question 79
(Refer to figure 30, illustration 2.) What magnetic bearing should the pilot use to fly TO the station?

a. 145°.
b. 190°.
c. 010°.

You answered "190°.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Since this is a movable card ADF, we can assume that the aircraft's magnetic heading has been set to the top of the instrument - in this csae, 315o. The MAGNETIC bearing To the station is therefore simply read under the arrow. In this case it is 190o.. Turn left to 190o. to fly TO the station. Notes: " The tail of the pointer shows the MAGNETIC bearing FROM the station of 010. " The RELATIVE bearing TO the station in this case is 225 desgrees." The RELATIVE bearing FROM the station in this case is 045 degrees.

Question 80
(Refer to figure 8.) What is the effect of a temperature increase from 25 to 50 °F on the density altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 5,000 feet?

a. 1,400-foot increase.
b. 1,650-foot increase.
c. 1,200-foot increase.

The correct answer is: "1,650-foot increase."
Reference: " Locate the 25 (green) and 50 (red) degrees Fahrenheit points along the horizontal axis of the figure. " Trace two vertical lines from those points (Area 1 and 2) to where the diagonal 5,000 foot pressure altitude line (blue) is met to get two new points. " From the two new points, trace two horizontal lines to the density altitude scale on the vertical axis. " Read 5500 for 50 degrees and 3850 for 25 degrees (Area 3). The difference between the two values is 1,650 feet.

Question 81
Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?

a. Servicing landing gear wheel bearings.
b. Engine adjustments to allow automotive gas to be used.
c. Alteration of main seat support brackets.

You answered "Servicing landing gear wheel bearings.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: " An example of preventive maintenance is servicing landing gear wheel bearings. " Engine adjustments to allow autogas to be used require (in general) the issuance of a supplemental type certificate (STC), as this is potentially a significant alteration. " Equally significant, though perhaps not initially apparent, is the alteration of main seat support brackets. This is considered by the FAA to be a significant structural change.

Question 82
Excessively high engine temperatures will

a. cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
b. not appreciably affect an aircraft engine.
c. cause damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling fins.

The correct answer is: "cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage."
Reference: Excessively high engine temperatures will cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage. An advanced pilot will learn to monitor engine gauges for excessive heat. The will "not appreciably affect an aircraft engine" statement is simply incorrect. The other incorrect answer may look tempting at first, but looking at it in detail, the damage that it cites would occur to "heat-conducting hoses" and "cylinder cooling fans," that is, parts that have already been designed with heat distribution in mind. While, at the extreme, these factors could occur, the more everyday effects described in the correct answer are the most correct.

Question 83
(Refer to figure 21, area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport.

a. 36°24'N - 76°01'W.
b. 36°48'N - 76°01'W.
c. 47°24'N - 75°58'W.

You answered "36°24'N - 76°01'W.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The trick to these latitude / longitude questions is remembering that each latitude / longitude "tick mark" represents one minute-- that is, one sixtieth of a degree of latitude or longitude. There is no such thing as "36 75'N," as 75 > 59 (60 = 0). Furthermore, it's important to remember that latitude and longitude are read from the equator and prime meridian (Greenwich, England). This means that, for the USA, while 36 01'N is "above" 36 00'N when the map is held with north facing up, 76.01' W is to the LEFT, not right of 76.00' W.

Question 84
If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility condition, the best way to overcome the effect is to

a. rely upon the aircraft instrument indications.
b. consciously slow the breathing rate until symptoms clear and then resume normal breathing rate.
c. concentrate on yaw, pitch, and roll sensations.

You answered "rely upon the aircraft instrument indications.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 8-1-5 states:Various complex motions and forces and certain visual scenes encountered in flight can create illusions of motion and position. Spatial disorientation from these illusions can be prevented only by visual reference to reliable, fixed points on the ground or to flight instruments.

Question 85
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that

a. weather conditions are at or above VFR minimums.
b. the sky condition is clear and visibility is unrestricted.
c. the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.

You answered "the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 4-1-13 states: AUTOMATIC TERMINAL INFORMATION SERVICE (ATIS) ATIS information includes the time of the latest weather sequence, ceiling, visibility, obstructions to visibility, temperature, dew point (if available), wind direction (magnetic), and velocity, altimeter, other pertinent remarks, instrument approach and runway in use. The ceiling/sky condition, visibility, and obstructions to vision may be omitted from the ATIS broadcast if the ceiling is above 5,000 feet and the visibility is more than 5 miles. The departure runway will only be given if different from the landing runway except at locations having a separate ATIS for departure. The broadcast may include the appropriate frequency and instructions for VFR arrivals to make initial contact with approach control. Pilots of aircraft arriving or departing the terminal area can receive the continuous ATIS broadcast at times when cockpit duties are least pressing and listen to as many repeats as desired. ATIS broadcast shall be updated upon the receipt of any official hourly and special weather. A new recording will also be made when there is a change in other pertinent data such as runway change, instrument approach in use, etc.

Question 86
(Refer to figure 23, area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over Sandpoint Airport at less than 700 feet AGL are

a. 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
b. 3 miles and clear of clouds.
c. 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.

You answered "3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The airspace at less than 700 feet AGL over the Sandpoint airport is Class G. At less than 1200 feet AGL, Class G airspace requires the following VFR weather: Night - 3 SM visibility, 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, and 2000 feet horizontal from clouds; and Day - 1 SM visibility and clear of clouds.The only answer that can be correct is if we assume the question is asking about night operations. In that case "3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud." is correct. During the day, the requirement is "1 SM visibility and clear of clouds."

Question 87
(Refer to figure 8.) Determine the pressure altitude at an airport that is 1,386 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 29.97.

a. 1,451 feet MSL.
b. 1,562 feet MSL.
c. 1,341 feet MSL.

You answered "1,341 feet MSL.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: " Along the right side of Figure 8, read the Pressure Altitude Conversion Factors of -73' feet at 30.00 and 0' at 29.92. (Area 1) " Interpolate between them to determine -45.6 feet for 29.97. Subtract 45.6 from 1,386 to determine 1340.4 feet. (Area 2)

Question 88
When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?

a. 1200.
b. 7600.
c. 7700.

You answered "1200.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 4-1-19 states:Transponder Operation Under Visual Flight Rules (VFR). 1. Unless otherwise instructed by an Air Traffic Control Facility, adjust transponder to reply on MODE 3/A code 1200 regardless of altitude. 2. Adjust transponder to reply on MODE C, with altitude reporting capability activated if the aircraft is so equipped, unless deactivation is directed by ATC or unless the installed equipment has not been tested and calibrated as required by FAR Part 91.217. If deactivation is required and your transponder is so designed, turn off the altitude reporting switch and continue to transmit MODE C framing pulses. If this capability does not exist, turn off MODE C.

Question 89
A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a

a. pulsating white light.
b. pulsating red light.
c. steady white light.

You answered "pulsating red light.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: A pulsating light approach slope indicator displays a pulsating red light when you are below the glide path. There are relatively few of these in existence, but it is good to know this in case you ever encounter one.

Question 90
(Refer to figure 16.) What sky condition and type obstructions to vision are forecast for upper Michigan in the western portions from 0200Z until 0500Z?

a. Ceiling becoming 100 feet overcast with visibility 3 to 5 statue miles in mist.
b. Ceiling becoming 1,000 feet overcast with visibility 3 to 5 nautical miles in mist.
c. Ceiling becoming 1,000 feet overcast with visibility 3 to 5 statute miles in mist.

You answered "Ceiling becoming 1,000 feet overcast with visibility 3 to 5 statute miles in mist.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Locate the relevant section of the FA towards the bottom third of the figure. It begins with "UPR MI" (upper Michigan). From there, locate the line beginning with "WRN PTNS" (Western Portions). The forecast calls for "OVC 010" (1000' overcast), VIS 3-5SM (notice, even without the "SM", ground visibility for VFR is nearly always given in statute, not nautical, miles), "BR." "BR" is a code that you may recognize from METAR decoding. It means "mist."

Question 91
Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate

a. beneath the floor of Class B airspace.
b. from the primary airport within Class D airspace.
c. over a densely populated area or in a congested airway.

You answered "over a densely populated area or in a congested airway.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.313 states: (e) Except when operating in accordance with the terms and conditions of a certificate of waiver or special operating limitations issued by the Administrator, no person may operate a restricted category civil aircraft within the United States -- 1. Over a densely populated area; 2. In a congested airway; or 3. Near a busy airport where passenger transport operations are conducted. "Experimental" is a type of restricted category civil aircraft.

Question 92
What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts?

a. Magnetic direction and knots.
b. Magnetic direction and miles per hour.
c. True direction and knots.

You answered "True direction and knots.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-45, section 4 states:A 4-digit group shows wind direction, in reference to true north, and wind speed. The first two digits give direction in tens of degrees and the second two digits are the wind speed in knots. If a coded direction is more than "36," then the wind speed is 100 knots or more. Therefore, if the wind direction number is between 51 and 86, the wind speed will be over 100 knots. For example, the STL forecast for 39,000 feet is "731960." The wind direction is from 230 degrees (73-50=23) and the speed is 119 knots (100+19= 119). The temperature is minus 60 degrees Celsius. If the wind speed is forecast to be 200 knots or greater, the wind group is coded as 199 knots. For example, "7799" is decoded as 270 degrees at 199 knots or greater. When the forecast speed is less than 5 knots, the coded group is "9900" and read, "LIGHT AND VARIABLE."

Question 93
Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?

a. A forced landing due to engine failure.
b. Landing gear damage, due to a hard landing.
c. Flight control system malfunction or failure.

The correct answer is: "Flight control system malfunction or failure."
Reference: 49 CFR Part 830.5 states: The operator of any civil aircraft, or any public aircraft not operated by the Armed Forces or an intelligence agency of the United States, or any foreign aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest National Transportation Safety Board (Board) field office when: a. An aircraft accident or any of the following listed incidents occur: 1. Flight control system malfunction or failure; 2. Inability of any required flight crewmember to perform normal flight duties as a result of injury or illness; 3. Failure of structural components of a turbine engine excluding compressor and turbine blades and vanes; 4. In-flight fire; or 5. Aircraft collide in flight. 6. Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000 for repair (including materials and labor) or fair market value in the event of total loss, whichever is less. 7. For large multiengine aircraft (more than 12,500 pounds maximum takeoff weight); i. In-flight failure of electrical systems which requires the sustained use of an emergency bus powered by a backup source such as a battery, auxiliary power unit, or air driven generator to retain flight control or essential instruments; ii. In-flight failure of hydraulic systems that results in sustained reliance on the sole remaining hydraulic or mechanical system for movement of flight control surfaces; iii. Sustained loss of the power or thrust produced by two or more engines; and iv. An evacuation of an aircraft in which an emergency egress system is utilized. b. An aircraft is overdue and is believed to have been involved in an accident.

Question 94
When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?

a. When parallel runways are in use.
b. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
c. When departing from a runway intersection.

You answered "When departing from a runway intersection.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 4-3-10 states:INTERSECTION TAKEOFFS In order to enhance airport capacities, reduce taxiing distances, minimize departure delays, and provide for more efficient movement of air traffic, controllers may initiate intersection takeoffs as well as approve them when the pilot requests. If for ANY reason a pilot prefers to use a different intersection or the full length of the runway or desires to obtain the distance between the intersection and the runway end, THE PILOT IS EXPECTED TO INFORM ATC ACCORDINGLY. An aircraft is expected to taxi to (but not onto) the end of the assigned runway unless prior approval for an intersection departure is received from ground control. Pilots should state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff from a runway intersection.

Question 95
(Refer to figure 21.) Determine the magnetic course from First Flight Airport (area 5) to Hampton Roads Airport (area 2).

a. 141°.
b. 331°.
c. 321°.

You answered "331°.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Determine the magnetic course by placing a straightedge from the origin to the destination (Blue line from FFA to PVG). Slide the straightedge over (without changing its orientation) to the nearest VOR rose--in this case, the one encircling the Elizabeth City VOR/DME. Read the corresponding heading from the VOR rose (red line).

Question 96
Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to

a. rise into the takeoff or landing path of a crossing runway.
b. sink below the aircraft generating turbulence.
c. rise into the traffic pattern.

You answered "sink below the aircraft generating turbulence.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 7-3-4 states: Flight tests have shown that the vortices from larger (transport category) aircraft sink at a rate of several hundred feet per minute, slowing their descent and diminishing in strength with time and distance behind the generating aircraft. Atmospheric turbulence hastens breakup. Pilots should fly at or above the preceding aircraft's flight path, altering course as necessary to avoid the area behind and below the generating aircraft.

Question 97
(Refer to figure 41.) Determine the total distance required for takeoff to clear a 50-foot obstacle. OAT Std Pressure altitude 4,000 ft Takeoff weight 2,800 lb Headwind component Calm

a. 1,750 feet.
b. 2,000 feet.
c. 1,500 feet.

You answered "1,750 feet.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Standard temperature = 15 deg C - ( 2 deg C for each 1000' of altitude.). So, the standard temperature here is 15 - (2 *4) = 7 deg C. 1. Locate 7 deg C on the OAT scale. Move up (red line) from here to the 4000' pressure altitude. It intersects at the ISA line.2. Move horizontally (blue line) from that intersection point to the first reference line. 3. From your point on the reference line, draw a (green) line roughly parallel to the diagonal weight lines pictured. Find the point at which your line crosses the 2800 lb (red) vertical line. 4. From this point, move horizontally to the second reference line. The wind is calm. You can continue moving to the third reference line.5. From the intersection of your line and the third reference line, draw a (green) line roughly parallel to the obstacle height diagonal lines there to the far right side (50 foot obstacle). 6. The indication should be around 1750 on the rightmost scale.

Question 98
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?

a. An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.
b. An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet of the aircraft.
c. An altitude of 1,000 feet above any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

You answered "An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: From FAR. 91.119 - Minimum safe altitudes: General.Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate an aircraft below the following altitudes: ... (b) Over congested areas. Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open air assembly of persons, an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.

Question 99
What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying under Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?

a. Continual flight into instrument conditions.
b. Getting behind the aircraft.
c. Duck-under syndrome.

You answered "Continual flight into instrument conditions.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Continual flight into instrument meteorological conditions (known as VFR into IMC) is perhaps the most dangerous possible scenario for a pilot, especially a newly-certified one. Even though the FAA has mandated an ever-increasing amount of simulated IFR ("hood") training for VFR pilots, it is important to remember that even for an experienced IFR pilot, VFR flight into IMC is very, very dangerous.Duck-under syndrome and getting behind the aircraft are both dangerous, but neither will necessarily or often lead to the spatial disorientation mentioned in the question as much as VFR into IMC almost invariably will.

Question 100
What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "Invulnerability"?

a. It will not happen to me.
b. It could happen to me.
c. It can not be that bad.

You answered "It could happen to me.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: This question is a fairly easy one if you don't skip or misunderstand the meaning of the word "antidote." An antidote is something that you take to counter a poison--in this case, the poisonous attitude of 'invulnerability.' Both of the incorrect answers in this case are examples of lines of thought or action where the thinker incorrectly/unjustifiably dismisses/minimizes possible negative consequences.Some of you reading this may initially find such questions to be pedantic and "beneath you" in the sense that this stuff seems fairly obvious. While the content may indeed at some level be obvious, training yourself to act upon such "obvious" information is a whole different story. Try to consciously consider the "antidote" attitude when you find yourself getting into a hazardous attitude trap.

100 Random Questions 100-200

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Last modified: 06/17/09

100 Random Questions 100-200

Send mail to someone@microsoft.com with questions or comments about this web site. Last modified: 06/17/09

Send mail to someone@microsoft.com with questions or comments about this web site.
Last modified: 06/17/09