Private Pilot Testing Site

Supplement for all Figures

Environment/Flight

Applying Human Factors Principles

Flying Cross-Country

Federal Aviation Regulations

Additional Questions

100 Random Questions

100-200 Random Questions

200-300 Random Questions

300-400 Random Questions

400-500 Random Questions

500-600 Random Questions

600-700 Random Questions

700-744 Random Questions

100 Random Questions

Question 1
To best determine general forecast weather conditions over several states, the pilot should refer to

a. Satellite Maps.
b. Weather Depiction Charts.
c. Aviation Area Forecasts.

You answered "Aviation Area Forecasts.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-45, section 4 states:An aviation Area Forecast (FA) is a forecast of general weather conditions over an area the size of several states. It is used to determine forecast en route weather and to interpolate conditions at airports which do not have FTs issued.

Question 2
(Refer to figure 39.) Determine the approximate landing ground roll distance. Pressure altitude 5,000 ft Headwind Calm Temperature 101 °F

a. 545 feet.
b. 495 feet.
c. 445 feet.

You answered "545 feet.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: In the 5,00 foot column, read a ground roll of 495 feet. Note 2 tells us to add 10 percent for each 60 degrees above standard. 495 plus 49.5 equals 544.5 feet. The closest answer is 545 feet.

Question 3
What effect does high density altitude have on aircraft performance?

a. It reduces climb performance.
b. It increases engine performance.
c. It increases takeoff performance.

You answered "It reduces climb performance.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: High density altitude reduces climb performance due primarily to aerodynamic, not engine-related, factors. When density altitude is relatively high, the air is less dense, meaning that the airplane must move more in the horizontal plane to get past a sufficient number of air molecules to generate lift than if the air was more dense. Therefore, A is the correct answer. Answer B is incorrect because engine performance is likewise decreased, not increased. Answer C is incorrect because takeoff performance is decreased, not increased.

Question 4
Radar weather reports are of special interest to pilots because they indicate

a. large areas of low ceilings and fog.
b. location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and trend.
c. location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and cell movement of precipitation.

You answered "location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and trend.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-45 section 3 states: Thunderstorms and general areas of precipitation can be observed by radar. Most radar stations report each hour at H+35 with intervening special reports as required. The report includes the type, intensity, and location of the echo top of the precipitation. Also included is the echo top of the precipitation and if significant, the base echo. Note all heights are reported above Mean Sea Level (MSL).Editor;s Note: This question and answer set is exactly as published by the FAA. However, the latest update to AC 00-45 has this note: ).The radar weather report (SD) includes the type, intensity, and location of the echo top of the precipitation. (The intensity trend of precipitation is no longer coded on the SD.)

Question 5
The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will

a. increase if the CG is moved forward.
b. change with an increase in gross weight.
c. remain the same regardless of gross weight.

You answered "remain the same regardless of gross weight.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 61-23, chapter 1 states: When the angle of attack is increased to approximately 15° to 20° (critical angle of attack) on most airfoils, the airstream can no longer follow the upper curvature of the wing because of the excessive change in direction.As the critical angle of attack is approached, the airstream begins separating from the rear of the upper wing surface. As the angle of attack is further increased, the separation moves forward to the area of the highest camber. This causes a swirling or burbling of the air as it attempts to follow the upper surface of the wing. When the critical angle of attack is reached, the turbulent airflow, which appeared near the trailing edge of the wing at lower angles of attack, quickly spreads forward over the entire upper wing surface. This results in a sudden increase in pressure on the upper wing surface and a considerable loss of lift. Due to the loss of lift and increase in form drag, the remaining lift is insufficient to support the airplane, and the wing stalls.

Question 6
(Refer to figure 23.) What is the magnetic heading for a flight from Priest River Airport (area 1) to Shoshone County Airport (area 3)? The wind is from 030° at 12 knots, and the true airspeed is 95 knots.

a. 143°.
b. 118°.
c. 136°.

You answered "118°.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Place a plotter on the chart, with the edge lined up on both Priest River and Shoshone Co., and read 143 true. Subtract the east variation of 18 degrees to determine a magnetic course of 125. The wind requires a correction to the left of 6 degrees giving us a magnetic heading of 119 degrees.

Question 7
For private pilot operations, a First-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 23-year-old pilot on October 21, this year, will expire at midnight on

a. October 31, 3 years later.
b. October 21, 2 years later.
c. October 31, next year.

You answered "October 31, 3 years later.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: 14 CFR Part 61.23 states: (c) Duration of a medical certificate. 1. A first-class medical certificate expires at the end of the last day of -- i. The sixth month after the month of the date of examination shown on the certificate for operations requiring an airline transport pilot certificate; ii. The 12th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the certificate for operations requiring a commercial pilot certificate or an air traffic control tower operator certificate; and iii. The period specified in paragraph (c)(3) of this section for operations requiring a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), or a student pilot certificate.2. A second-class medical certificate expires at the end of the last day of -- i. The 12th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the certificate for operations requiring a commercial pilot certificate or an air traffic control tower operator certificate; andii. The period specified in paragraph (c)(3) of this section for operations requiring a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), or a student pilot certificate. 3. A third-class medical certificate for operations requiring a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), or a student pilot certificate issued -- i. Before September 16, 1996, expires at the end of the 24th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the certificate; or ii. On or after September 16, 1996, expires at the end of: (A) The 36th month after the month of the date of the examination shown on the certificate if the person has not reached his or her 40th birthday on or before the date of examination; or (B) The 24th month after the month of the date of the examination shown on the certificate if the person has reached his or her 40th birthday on or before the date of the examination.

Question 8
(Refer to figure 49.) According to the airport diagram, which statement is true?

a. The takeoff and landing portion of Runway 12 begins at position B.
b. Runway 30 is equipped at position E with emergency arresting gear to provide a means of stopping military aircraft.
c. Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B.

You answered "Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Takeoffs may be started at position A on runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B. The important thing to remember here is that the arrowed-region (A), may be used only for taxi and takeoff, but not landing. This may be as such for a number of reasons, including that the portion of the runway at A was not designed to take the additional stresses of landing, or, more likely, that the normal glideslope to "A" comes to close to some off-runway obstruction.

Question 9
The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from

a. the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.
b. sunset to sunrise.
c. 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.

You answered "1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: From FAR 61.57:(b) Night takeoff and landing experience.(1) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise, unless within the preceding 90 days that person has made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise.

Question 10
(Refer to figure 27, area 1.) Identify the airspace over Lowe Airport.

a. Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL, Class E airspace - 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.
b. Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.
c. Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 700 feet MSL, Class E airspace - 700 feet to 14,500 feet MSL.

You answered "Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL, Class E airspace - 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: This one is a bit tricky, but you can tell that Lowe airport is in class G airspace by the shaded blue line at the bottom left of the chart (shown by the red arrows) which indicates that the majority of the area of the chart is Class G airspace up to 1200 AGL, class E airspace above that to 17,999 MSL, above which is class A. The areas with the fuzzy magenta lines around them, often airports with approved instrument approaches, class G airspace goes up only to 700 feet AGL.

Question 11
Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?

a. Contact the FSS for traffic advisories.
b. Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency.
c. Contact the tower and request permission to enter.

The correct answer is: "Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency."
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 3-2-4 states: Arrival or Through Flight Entry Requirements: Two-way radio communication must be established with the ATC facility providing ATC services prior to entry and thereafter maintain those communications while in Class C airspace. Pilots of arriving aircraft should contact the Class C airspace ATC facility on the publicized frequency and give their position, altitude, radar beacon code, destination, and request Class C service. Radio contact should be initiated far enough from the Class C airspace boundary to preclude entering Class C airspace before two-way radio communications are established.

Question 12
If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?

a. August 31, 2 years later.
b. August 8, 2 years later.
c. August 31, next year.

You answered "August 31, 2 years later.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Recreational and Private pilots need Biennial (every two years) Flight Reviews (BFRs) to act as Pilot in Command (PIC). In classic FAA style, these must be accomplished every 24 calendar months.CFR 14, paragraph 61.56 (c) states: Except as provided in paragraphs (d), (e), and (g) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft unless, since the beginning of the 24th calendar month before the month in which that pilot acts as pilot in command, that person has - 1. Accomplished a flight review given in an aircraft for which that pilot is rated by an authorized instructor; and2. A logbook endorsed from an authorized instructor who gave the review certifying that the person has satisfactorily completed the review. Since the time period is based on the month, a review done on the 1st day of August is good until the 31st of August 2 years later. BeFoRe you fly as Pilot in Command, you need a BFR.

Question 13
What do outbound destination sign identify?

a. Identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway.
b. Identifies direction to take-off runways.
c. Identifies runway on which an aircraft is located.

You answered "Identifies direction to take-off runways.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 2-3-11 states: DESTINATION SIGNS 1. Destination signs also have a yellow background with a black inscription indicating a destination on the airport. These signs always have an arrow showing the direction of the taxiing route to that destination. When the arrow on the destination sign indicates a turn, the sign is located prior to the intersection. 2 2. Destinations commonly shown on these types of signs include runways, aprons, terminals, military areas, civil aviation areas, cargo areas, international areas, and fixed base operators. An abbreviation may be used as the inscription on the sign for some of these destinations. 3 3. When the inscription for two or more destinations having a common taxiing route are placed on a sign, the destinations are separated by a "dot" ( o ) and one arrow would be used as shown above. When the inscription on a sign contains two or more destinations having different taxiing routes, each destination will be accompanied by an arrow and will be separated from the other destinations on the sign with a vertical black message divider.

Question 14
Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, that person must have

a. an endorsement in that person's logbook that he or she is competent to act as pilot in command.
b. passed a flight test in that airplane from an FAA inspector.
c. received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook.

You answered "received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: A common feature of many questions involving "what do you need before you can do X?" where X is something that requires a logbook endorsement is that the FAA wants you to remember that such an endorsement can not be made without prior training that makes the endorsement legitimate. With that in mind, answer A is sort-of correct (it's wrong in that it doesn't say "from an authorized flight instructor), but not the best or most complete answer. Answer B is incorrect because there is no FAA "checkride" for high-performance competency. Answer C is the best answer.Remember that logbook endorsements must be made by an authorized flight instructor and that training must precede any logbook endorsement.

Question 15
No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the

a. flight visibility is at least 3 miles.
b. airplane is equipped for instrument flight.
c. flight can be conducted 500 feet below the clouds.

You answered "airplane is equipped for instrument flight.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14, Part 91.157 states: Except for helicopters, between sunrise and sunset (or in Alaska, when the sun is 6° or more below the horizon) unless - i. The person being granted the ATC clearance meets the applicable requirements for instrument flight under part 61 of this chapter; and ii. The aircraft is equipped as required in § 91.205(d). This paragraph details the equipment required for instrument flight.

Question 16
(Refer to figure 37.) What is the maximum wind velocity for a 30° crosswind if the maximum crosswind component for the airplane is 12 knots?

a. 16 knots.
b. 20 knots.
c. 24 knots.

You answered "24 knots.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: 1. Enter along the 30 degree line (blue), 2. Read down to where it intersects the 12 knot crosswind component line (red) 3. Both lines intersect at the 24 knots wind arc (green).

Question 17
Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include

a. a study of arrival procedures at airports/ heliports of intended use.
b. the designation of an alternate airport.
c. an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

You answered "an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: This is a tough question to answer because all of the potential choices seem reasonable. However, the FARs in this case speak to the most general case and insist that you have an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.In this case, the broadest action of those listed is also the most prudent and most conducive to safety.

Question 18
If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is warmer than standard, the density altitude is

a. equal to pressure altitude.
b. lower than pressure altitude.
c. higher than pressure altitude.

You answered "higher than pressure altitude.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: When you hear "density altitude", think of hot days. When the weather is warm, the air gets less dense, so, to the airplane, it is as if the airport were at a higher altitude (the "density altitude"), so performance decreases. Pressure altitude is based on standard temperature, so the answer must be that if the OAT at a given altitude is warmer than standard, the density altitude must be higher than pressure altitude.Density altitude = Denver (a city at high elevation). Air density is based on temperature and elevation. On a hot day, an airport with a pressure altitude of sea level might have a density altitude of several thousand feet or more, generally worsening aircraft performance and increasing the amount of runway necessary for operations.

Question 19
(Refer to figure 4.) Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration?

a. Upper limit of the green arc.
b. Lower limit of the green arc.
c. Upper limit of the white arc.

You answered "Lower limit of the green arc.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The lower limit of the green arc specifies the power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration (VS1), generally meaning flaps and landing gear up (retracted). The upper limit of the green arc is the maximum structural cruising speed (VNO). The upper limit of the white arc is the maximum flap extended speed (VFE).

Question 20
A nonfrontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms that often develop ahead of a cold front is known as a

a. prefrontal system.
b. squall line.
c. dry line.

You answered "squall line.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-6A, Chapter 11 states:A squall line is a non-frontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms. Often it develops ahead of a cold front in moist, unstable air, but it may develop in unstable air far removed from any front. The line may be too long to easily detour and too wide and severe to penetrate. It often contains severe steady-state thunderstorms and presents the single most intense weather hazard to aircraft. It usually forms rapidly, generally reaching maximum intensity during the late afternoon and the first few hours of darkness.

Question 21
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding

a. 12 calendar months.
b. 24 calendar months.
c. 6 calendar months.

You answered "24 calendar months.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The "carrying passengers" bit is in there to throw you off. Whether or not you are carrying passengers, to act as Pilot In Command (PIC) you need to have a flight review biannually--the BFR. BeFoRe you fly as PIC, you need a BFR

Question 22
The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately

a. 008° and 026° true.
b. 080° and 260° true.
c. 080° and 260° magnetic.

You answered "080° and 260° magnetic.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The numbers 8 and 26 indicate that the runway is oriented approximately 080 and 260 magnetic. One effective habit of many pilots is to set / confirm the directional gyro (heading indicator) with both the magnetic compass and the runway heading when either lined up on a numbered runway or taxiing parallel to one. If you do this good practice, you will quickly surmise that the runways are oriented on magnetic headings.

Question 23
The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting

a. a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.
b. an increase in RPM and then a gradual decrease in RPM.
c. a decrease in RPM and then a constant RPM indication.

You answered "a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: As we know from other questions (and our engine run-up), applying carburetor heat causes an initial decrease in RPM largely because it enriches the fuel/air mixture. If carburetor ice is present, what will happen next is that RPM will slowly rise as the blockage is melted away. It is important to recall this if you ever suspect carburetor ice. You have to remember that you will initially get that decrease--monitor the RPM gauge closely to verify a gradual increase as the ice melts away.

Question 24
(Refer to figure 31, illustration 7.) If the magnetic bearing TO the station is 030°, the magnetic heading is

a. 120°.
b. 060°.
c. 270°.

You answered "120°.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Since this is a fixed card ADF, we have to superimpose the heading indicator over the ADF card (with the magnetic bearing under the nose of the bearing pointer) to visualize the magnetic heading to the station. This is the same as subtracting the relative bearing from the magnetic bearing. Subtracting 270 degrees from the magnetic bearing of 030 [(360+030)-270=120]gives us a magnetic heading of 120 degrees.

Question 25
(Refer to figure 4.) What is the full flap operating range for the airplane?

a. 60 to 100 MPH.
b. 65 to 165 MPH.
c. 60 to 208 MPH.

You answered "60 to 100 MPH.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The flap operating range is indicated by the white arc on the airspeed indicator. In this case, the flap range is from 60 to 100 MPH.

Question 26
Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if

a. they ignore the sensations of muscles and inner ear.
b. body signals are used to interpret flight attitude.
c. eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments.

You answered "body signals are used to interpret flight attitude.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 8-1-5 states: Many different illusions can be experienced in flight. Some can lead to spatial disorientation. Others can lead to landing errors. Illusions rank among the most common factors cited as contributing to fatal aircraft accidents.Various complex motions and forces and certain visual scenes encountered in flight can create illusions of motion and position. Spatial disorientation from these illusions can be prevented only by visual reference to reliable, fixed points on the ground or to flight instruments.

Question 27
In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may

a. act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for compensation if the flight is in connection with a business or employment.
b. not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.
c. not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight.

You answered "not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: From FAR 61.113 comes one of the most discussed passages in the Federal Aviation Regulations: " (c) A private pilot may not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.

Question 28
Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall

a. maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
b. stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing.
c. maintain a 3° glide to the runway.

You answered "maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.129 States: (3) An airplane approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator shall maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. Paragraphs (e)(2) and (e)(3) of this section do not prohibit normal bracketing maneuvers above or below the glide slope that are conducted for the purpose of remaining on the glide slope.

Question 29
(Refer to figure 52.) If more than one cruising altitude is intended, which should be entered in block 7 of the flight plan?

a. Lowest cruising altitude.
b. Initial cruising altitude.
c. Highest cruising altitude.

You answered "Initial cruising altitude.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 5-1-4 states:Block 7. Enter the requested en route altitude or flight level.NOTE - Enter only the initial requested altitude in this block. When more than one IFR altitude or flight level is desired along the route of flight it is best to make a subsequent request direct to the controller.

Question 30
Where does wind shear occur?

a. Only at lower altitudes.
b. Only at higher altitudes.
c. At all altitudes, in all directions.

You answered "At all altitudes, in all directions.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-6 states:Wind shear generates eddies between two wind currents of differing velocities. The differences may be in wind speed, wind direction, or in both. Wind shear may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.

Question 31
A chair-type parachute must have been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding

a. 120 days.
b. 90 days.
c. 60 days.

You answered "120 days.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.307 states: a) No pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a parachute that is available for emergency use to be carried in that aircraft unless it is an approved type and -- a. If a chair type (canopy in back), it has been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding 120 days; or b. If any other type, it has been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger --i. Within the preceding 120 days, if its canopy, shrouds, and harness are composed exclusively of nylon, rayon, or other similar synthetic fiber or materials that are substantially resistant to damage from mold, mildew, or other fungi and other rotting agents propagated in a moist environment; or ii. Within the preceding 60 days, if any part of the parachute is composed of silk, pongee, or other natural fiber, or materials not specified in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section.

Question 32
An ATC clearance provides

a. priority over all other traffic.
b. adequate separation from all traffic.
c. authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.

You answered "authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 4-4-1 states:A clearance issued by ATC is predicated on known traffic and known physical airport conditions. An ATC clearance means an authorization by ATC, for the purpose of preventing collision between known aircraft, for an aircraft to proceed under specific conditions within controlled airspace.IT IS NOT AUTHORIZATION FOR A PILOT TO DEVIATE FROM ANY RULE, REGULATION, OR MINIMUM ALTITUDE NOR TO CONDUCT UNSAFE OPERATION OF THE AIRCRAFT.14 CFR Part 91.3(a) states:The pilot-in-command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft." If ATC issues a clearance that would cause a pilot to deviate from a rule or regulation, or in the pilot's opinion, would place the aircraft in jeopardy, IT IS THE PILOT'S RESPONSIBILITY TO REQUEST AN AMENDED CLEARANCE. Similarly, if a pilot prefers to follow a different course of action, such as make a 360 degree turn for spacing to follow traffic when established in a landing or approach sequence, land on a different runway, takeoff from a different intersection, takeoff from the threshold instead of an intersection, or delay operation, THE PILOT IS EXPECTED TO INFORM ATC ACCORDINGLY. When the pilot requests a different course of action, however, the pilot is expected to cooperate so as to preclude disruption of traffic flow or creation of conflicting patterns.

Question 33
How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?

a. The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate.
b. There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.
c. The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space.

You answered "There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 8-1-8 states:Collision Course Targets: Any aircraft that appears to have no relative motion and stays in one scan quadrant is likely to be on a collision course. Also, if a target shows no lateral or vertical motion, but increases in size, take evasive action.

Question 34
(Refer to figures 33 and 34.) What effect does a 35-gallon fuel burn (main tanks) have on the weight and balance if the airplane weighed 2,890 pounds and the MOM/100 was 2,452 at takeoff?

a. Weight is reduced by 210 pounds and the CG is aft of limits.
b. Weight is reduced by 210 pounds and the CG is unaffected.
c. Weight is reduced to 2,680 pounds and the CG moves forward.

You answered "Weight is reduced by 210 pounds and the CG is aft of limits.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: This is a classic example of a question where you can get the correct answer to a computational question without necessarily doing all of the math.First, there's the issue of the weight. A 35 gallon burn at 6lb/gallon implies a 210 pound weight reduction. 2980 - 210 = 2680, so the "weight" part of the three potential answers is the same. But what about the CG? From figure 33, we see that the ARM of the Fuel Tanks is 75. Looking at the FORWARD CG Limits at the bottom right of figure 33, we see that 75 is LESS than the values for the forward CG limits. This means that the fuel tanks are FORWARD of the airplane's CG when it is loaded within limits. That is, adding fuel to the fuel tanks brings the CG forward. From this, we can conclude that removing (burning) fuel brings the CG REARWARD. Unless the fuel tank were located right at the CG in our sample question, there would be no way for a fuel burn to have "no effect" on CG. Indeed, by process of elimination, we know that "aft of limits" must be the correct answer even before we do any math. But here's the math anyway: Take the takeoff moment of 245200 and adjust this for the fuel burn by SUBTRACTING (6 * 35 * 75) = 15750, that is, the weight of the fuel times the arm of the fuel tanks. We subtract because we are removing it from the airplane. This gets us a new moment of 229450. From figure 34, we see that this is more than the maximum moment for a weight of 2680.

Question 35
(Refer to figure 14.) If the terrain elevation is 1,295 feet MSL, what is the height above ground level of the base of the ceiling?

a. 1,295 feet AGL.
b. 505 feet AGL.
c. 6,586 feet AGL.

You answered "505 feet AGL.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The sky conditions portion of this PIREP (Pilot Weather Report) reports "BKN 018 TOP 055" (a broken layer at 1800 feet with tops at 5500) and "OVC 072 TOP 089" (an overcast layer at 7200 with tops at 8900). "Ceiling" is defined as the lowest layer of clouds indicated to be broken or overcast., so we are concerned only with the former. This PIREP was reported by an aircraft in flight, so the sky conditions are reported in MSL, not AGL. Therefore, to find the AGL altitude of the BKN layer, we subtract 1,295 from 1800 to get 505.

Question 36
What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?

a. Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.
b. Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway.
c. Denotes intersecting runways.

You answered "Denotes intersecting runways.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 2-3-5 states: HOLDING POSITION MARKINGS a. Runway Holding Position Markings: For runways these markings indicate where an aircraft is supposed to stop. They consist of four yellow lines two solid and two dashed, spaced six or twelve inches apart and extending across the width of the taxiway or runway. The solid lines are always on the side where the aircraft is to hold. There are three locations where runway holding position markings are encountered. 1. Runway Holding Position Markings on Taxiways: These markings identify the locations on a taxiway where an aircraft is supposed to stop when it does not have clearance to proceed onto the runway. When instructed by ATC "Hold short of (runway "xx")" the pilot should stop so no part of the aircraft extends beyond the holding position marking. When approaching the holding position marking, a pilot should not cross the marking without ATC clearance at a controlled airport or without making sure of adequate separation from other aircraft at uncontrolled airports. An aircraft exiting a runway is not clear of the runway until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the applicable holding position marking. 2. Runway Holding Position Markings on Runways: These markings are installed on runways only if the runway is normally used by air traffic control for "land, hold short" operations or taxiing operations and have operational significance only for those two types of operations. A sign with a white inscription on a red background is installed adjacent to these holding position markings. The holding position markings are placed on runways prior to the intersection with another runway, or some designated point. Pilots receiving instructions "cleared to land, runway "xx"" from air traffic control are authorized to use the entire landing length of the runway and should disregard any holding position markings located on the runway. Pilots receiving and accepting instructions "cleared to land runway "xx," hold short of runway "yy"" from air traffic control must either exit runway "xx," or stop at the holding position prior to runway "yy." 3. Taxiways Located in Runway Approach Areas: These markings are used at some airports where it is necessary to hold an aircraft on a taxiway located in the approach or departure area of a runway so that the aircraft does not interfere with the operations on that runway. This marking is collocated with the runway approach area holding position sign.

Question 37
(Refer to figure 29, illustration 8.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What radial is the aircraft crossing?

a. 210°.
b. 300°.
c. 030°.

You answered "030°.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The OBS is set to 210, the CDI is centered with a TO indication (red line). This puts us on the 030 radial FROM the station (blue line). Remember to think of the radials of a VOR as spokes radiating from the hub of a bicycle wheel.

Question 38
(Refer to figure 15.) What is the forecast wind for KMEM from 1600Z until the end of the forecast?

a. Variable in direction at 4 knots.
b. No significant wind.
c. Variable in direction at 6 knots.

You answered "Variable in direction at 6 knots.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-45, section 4 explains:WIND - this five (or six) digit group includes the expected wind direction (first 3 digits) and speed (last 2 digits or 3 digits if 100 knots or greater). The contraction "KT" follows to denote the units of wind speed. Wind gusts are noted by the letter "G" appended to the wind speed followed by the highest expected gust. A variable wind direction is noted by "VRB" where the three digit direction usually appears. A calm wind (3 knots or less) is forecast as "00000KT".

Question 39
What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?

a. To control roll.
b. To control overbanking tendency.
c. To control yaw..

You answered "To control yaw..".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: " The rudder of an airplane controls yaw, that is, the airplane's movement along its vertical (yaw) axis. " The rudder does not control roll. This is primarily the function of the ailerons." The rudder does not control overbanking tendency. Overbanking tendency is a phenomenon that is controlled through careful piloting using whatever flight controls are appropriate for the given situation. Try not to over think this question. Recall that the vertical axis of the airplane can properly and elegantly also be referred to as the yaw axis.

Question 40
At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92, when climbing to cruising flight level?

a. 18,000 feet MSL.
b. 24,000 feet MSL.
c. 14,500 feet MSL.

You answered "18,000 feet MSL.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Reference FAR 91.121 - Altimeter settings.:(a) Each person operating an aircraft shall maintain the cruising altitude or flight level of that aircraft, as the case may be, by reference to an altimeter that is set, when operating -- (2) At or above 18,000 feet MSL, to 29.92" Hg.

Question 41
(Refer to figure 35.) Determine the moment with the following data: WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000 Empty weight 1,350 51.5 Pilot and front passenger 340 --- Fuel (std tanks) Capacity --- Oil, 8 qt

a. 77.6 pound-inches.
b. 74.9 pound-inches
c. 69.9 pound-inches.

You answered "74.9 pound-inches".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: To get the moment of each individual components, we reference the top chart of Figure 35. We find the weight along the Y-axis and find where that intersects the diagonal line of the item we are interested in. We draw a vertical line down from that point to the X-axis to determine the moment. The total moment is the sum of the component moments. We get the moment for oil from Note 2 at the bottom of the top chart." Airplane = 51500 (given) " Front Pilot / Pax = 12250 " Fuel at standard tank capacity (38 gals) = 11000 " Oil = -200. Summing these, we get 74550. The closest answer to this is 74.9 pound-inches.

Question 42
Maximum endurance is obtained at the point of minimum power to maintain the aircraft

a. in steady, level flight.
b. in a long range descent.
c. at its slowest possible indicated airspeed.

You answered "in steady, level flight.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The maximum endurance condition would be obtained at the point of minimum power required since this would require the lowest fuel flow to keep the airplane in steady, level flight. Maximum range condition would occur where the proportion between speed and power required is greatest.

Question 43
VNO is defined as the

a. normal operating range.
b. never-exceed speed.
c. maximum structural cruising speed.

You answered "maximum structural cruising speed.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: " VNO is defined as the maximum structural cruising speed. On the airspeed indicator, this is the top of the green arc/beginning of the yellow arc. " You might be tempted to think that the correct answer is "Normal Operating Range" based on the letters "NO." The Normal Operating Range is represented by the entirety of the green arc on the airspeed indicator. " Never exceed speed, VNE is indicated by a red radial line on the airspeed indicator.

Question 44
What does the heavy dashed line that forms a large rectangular box on a radar summary chart refer to?

a. Areas of heavy rain.
b. Areas of hail 1/4 inch in diameter.
c. Severe weather watch area.

You answered "Severe weather watch area.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-45, section 7 explains: Severe weather watch areas are outlined by heavy dashed lines, usually in the form of a large rectangular box. There are two types, tornado watches and severe thunderstorm watches. The type of watch and the watch number are enclosed in a small rectangle and positioned as closely as possible to the northeast corner of the watch box.

Question 45
Refer to figure 22, area 1.) A balloon launched at Flying S Airport drifts southward towards the lighted obstacle. If the altimeter was set to the current altimeter setting upon launch, what should it indicate if the balloon is to clear the obstacle at 500 feet above the top?

a. 1,809 feet MSL.
b. 1,531 feet MSL.
c. 3,649 feet MSL.

You answered "3,649 feet MSL.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The altitude of the top of the obstacle is 3149 feet MSL. 3149 + 500 = 3649 feet MSL. Please note that while this question makes reference to a "balloon," the issue is raises applies to all pilots, not just balloon pilots. Hence, this question may appear on your non-balloon written test.

Question 46
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

a. Aircraft refueling other aircraft.
b. Airship.
c. Glider.

You answered "Glider.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: This is a tough one even if you know the right general idea, which is that the lesser maneuverable aircraft has the right of way. The trick is how CFR 14 Part 91.113 effectively defines "less maneuverable". There, gliders are listed above both airships and aircraft refueling other aircraft (though below hot air balloons) in the precedence list. 2. A glider has the right-of-way over an airship, airplane, or rotorcraft; and 3. An airship has the right-of-way over an airplane or rotorcraft. However, an aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft has the right-of-way over all other engine-driven aircraft.per CFR 14 Part 91.113. 1. Balloons 2. Gliders 3. a. Aircraft Towing or Refueling other Aircraft b. Airships 4. Airplanes, Rotorcraft, and other engine-driven craft.

Question 47
During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft is safe for flight?

a. The owner or operator.
b. The certificated mechanic who performed the annual inspection.
c. The pilot in command.

You answered "The pilot in command.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 61-23C, Chapter 2 states: The preflight inspection of the airplane is one of the pilot's most important duties. A number of serious airplane accidents have been traced directly to poor preflight inspection practices. The preflight inspection should be a thorough and systematic means by which the pilot determines that the airplane is ready for safe flight.CFR 14 Part 91.3 states: The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.

Question 48
What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?

a. 1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds.
b. 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.
c. 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.

You answered "1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.155 requires the following weather for this operation: " Day - Day visibility - 1 statute mile, " Cloud clearance - clear of clouds.

Question 49
(Refer to figures 33 and 34.) What is the maximum amount of baggage that can be carried when the airplane is loaded as follows? Front seat occupants 387 lb Rear seat occupants 293 lb Fuel 35 gal

a. 220 pounds.
b. 45 pounds.
c. 63 pounds.

You answered "45 pounds.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The empty weight is 2015. Add the fuel (35 * 6), 387, and 293 for a total of 2905. The maximum weight for takeoff and landing on Figure 33 is 2950. This leaves us with 45 pounds for baggage.

Question 50
What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators?

a. Never-exceed speed.
b. Maneuvering speed.
c. corresponds with the correct answer.
d. Maximum structural cruising speed.

You answered "Maneuvering speed.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Maneuvering speed is not color-coded on airspeed indicators. Never exceed speed is indicated by the red radial line on the airspeed indicator. Maximum structural cruising speed is indicated by the top of the green arc. Maneuvering speed is defined as the maximum speed at which the airplane controls can be moved through their full range of deflection without incurring structural damage due to excessive loads on the aircraft.

Question 51
With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be

a. susceptible to icing only when visible moisture is present.
b. equally susceptible to icing.
c. corresponds with the correct answer.
d. more susceptible to icing.

You answered "more susceptible to icing.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Fuel-injected systems have no carburetor, and thus are not subject to carburetor ice. We know from elsewhere that carburetor ice can be experienced when temperatures are as high as 70F because of the air-cooling properties of the venturi shape that make up the air passage for the carburetor. Fuel-injected systems are thus less susceptible to icing than carbureted systems.Fuel injection is fancier and more expensive than use of carburetors. One of the benefits of fuel-injection is lesser susceptibility to icing.

Question 52
(Refer to figure 23, area 3.) The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are

a. 7,500 feet MSL to 17,999 feet MSL.
b. 700 feet MSL to 12,500 feet MSL.
c. 1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL.

You answered "1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Although not shown on charts, the Class E airspace surrounding airways extends upward from 1200 AGL, to 18,000 MSL (or to the next overlying airspace), and extends 4nm on either side of the airway. As a Federal Airway (Victor Airway) passes right over Magee Airport, this certainly applies. The figure below shows the approximate actual width of the Victor Aiway drawn in blue.

Question 53
Prior to entering an Airport Advisory Area, a pilot should

a. contact the local FSS for airport and traffic advisories.
b. monitor ATIS for weather and traffic advisories.
c. contact approach control for vectors to the traffic pattern.

You answered "contact the local FSS for airport and traffic advisories.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 4-1-9 states: There is no substitute for alertness while in the vicinity of an airport. It is essential that pilots be alert and look for other traffic and exchange traffic information when approaching or departing an airport without an operating control tower. This is of particular importance since other aircraft may not have communication capability or, in some cases, pilots may not communicate their presence or intentions when operating into or out of such airports. To achieve the greatest degree of safety, it is essential that all radio-equipped aircraft transmit/receive on a common frequency identified for the purpose of airport advisories. An airport may have a full or part-time tower or FSS located on the airport, a full or part-time UNICOM station or no aeronautical station at all. There are three ways for pilots to communicate their intention and obtain airport/traffic information when operating at an airport that does not have an operating tower: by communicating with an FSS, a UNICOM operator, or by making a self-announce broadcast.

Question 54
A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the

a. associated Flight Service Station.
b. primary airport's control tower.
c. satellite airport's UNICOM.

You answered "primary airport's control tower.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 3-2-5 states: Class D Airspace -Arrival or Through Flight Entry Requirements: Two-way radio communication must be established with the ATC facility providing ATC services prior to entry and thereafter maintain those communications while in the Class D airspace. Pilots of arriving aircraft should contact the control tower on the publicized frequency and give their position, altitude, destination, and any request(s). Radio contact should be initiated far enough from the Class D airspace boundary to preclude entering the Class D airspace before two-way radio communications are established. Departures from: (a) A primary or satellite airport with an operating control tower: two-way radio communications must be established and maintained with the control tower, and thereafter as instructed by ATC while operating in the Class D airspace. (b) A satellite airport without an operating control tower: two-way radio communications must be established as soon as practicable after departing with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the Class D airspace as soon as practicable after departing.

Question 55
(Refer to figure 35.) Determine the aircraft loaded moment and the aircraft category. WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000 Empty weight 1,350 51.5 Pilot and front passenger 380 --- Fuel, 48 gal 288 --- Oil, 8 qt --- ---

a. 80.4, utility category.
b. 78.2, normal category.
c. 79.2, normal category.

You answered "79.2, normal category.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: From the lower chart of figure 35, we see that we need to determine both the aircraft weight as well as the moment to determine the category.The total moment is the sum of the component moments:" Airplane - 51500 (given) " Pilot / Front passenger - 14100 " Fuel 48 gals = 288 lbs - 13750 " Oil - 200 (note 2) = 79550 lb-inches. We see from chart 2 that this could imply normal or utility categories. If we want to be practical, we can look at the available answers and see that our figure is closest to 79.2 (there is always rounding and imprecision in these calculations), and just put that. To verify1350 (airplane) + 380 (front) + 288 (fuel) + 15 (oil) = 2033. At 2033 pounds we are in the normal category (utility category tops out at 2000 lbs).

Question 56
(Refer to figure 27, area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are

a. 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
b. 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
c. 1 mile and clear of clouds.

You answered "3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Between 1200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet AGL over the city of Cooperstown is class E airspace (actually, it starts at 700 feet AGL, as indicated by the magenta shading.)Daytime cloud clearance requirements for class E below 10,000 feet are 3 miles visibility, 1000 above, 500 below, 2000 horizontally.

Question 57
What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying?

a. Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight.
b. Wear sunglasses after sunset until ready for flight.
c. Avoid red lights at least 30 minutes before the flight.

You answered "Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 8-1-6 states:Vision Under Dim and Bright Illumination: Under conditions of dim illumination, small print and colors on aeronautical charts and aircraft instruments become unreadable unless adequate cockpit lighting is available. Moreover, another aircraft must be much closer to be seen unless its navigation lights are on. In darkness, vision becomes more sensitive to light, a process called dark adaptation. Although exposure to total darkness for at least 30 minutes is required for complete dark adaptation, a pilot can achieve a moderate degree of dark adaptation within 20 minutes under dim red cockpit lighting. Since red light severely distorts colors, especially on aeronautical charts, and can cause serious difficulty in focusing the eyes on objects inside the aircraft, its use is advisable only where optimum outside night vision capability is necessary. Even so, white cockpit lighting must be available when needed for map and instrument reading, especially under IFR conditions. Dark adaptation is impaired by exposure to cabin pressure altitudes above 5,000 feet, carbon monoxide inhaled in smoking and from exhaust fumes, deficiency of Vitamin A in the diet, and by prolonged exposure to bright sunlight. Since any degree of dark adaptation is lost within a few seconds of viewing a bright light, a pilot should close one eye when using a light to preserve some degree of night vision.

Question 58
(Refer to figure 23, area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1,200 feet AGL are

a. 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
b. 1 mile and clear of clouds.
c. 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.

You answered "3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The airspace at 1200 feet AGL over the Sandpoint airport is Class E. At less than 10,000 feet MSL, Class E airspace requires the following VFR weather: 3 SM visibility, 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, and 2000 feet horizontal from clouds.

Question 59
(Refer to figure 31, illustration 6.) On a magnetic heading of 120°, the magnetic bearing TO the station is

a. 270°.
b. 045°.
c. 165°.

The correct answer is: "165°."
Reference: Since this is a fixed card ADF, we have to superimpose the heading indicator over the ADF card to visualize the magnetic bearing to the station. This is the same as adding our heading difference from the displayed bearing. Adding 120 degrees to the relative bearing of 045 gives us a magnetic bearing of 165 degrees.

Question 60
What is pressure altitude?

a. The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure.
b. The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92.
c. The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error.

You answered "The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 61-23, chapter 3 defines:Pressure Altitude - The altitude indicated when the altimeter setting window (barometric scale) is adjusted to 29.92. This is the standard datum plane, a theoretical plane where air pressure (corrected to 15° C) is equal to 29.92 in. Hg. Pressure altitude is used for computer solutions to determine density altitude, true altitude, true airspeed, etc.

Question 61
The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is

a. "FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED."
b. "FORTY-FIVE HUNDRED FEET MSL."
c. "FOUR POINT FIVE."

You answered ""FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED."".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 4-2-8 states: Figures indicating hundreds and thousands in round number, as for ceiling heights, and upper wind levels up to 9,900 shall be spoken in accordance with the following. Examples:" 500: "five hundred" " 4,500: "four thousand five hundred"

Question 62
(Refer to figure 21, area 3.) What is the recommended communications procedure for a landing at Currituck County Airport?

a. Contact New Bern FSS for area traffic information.
b. Contact Elizabeth City FSS for airport advisory service.
c. Transmit intentions on 122.9 MHz when 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern.

You answered "Transmit intentions on 122.9 MHz when 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 4-1-9 states:Pilots of inbound traffic should monitor and communicate as appropriate on the designated CTAF from 10 miles to landing. Pilots of departing aircraft should monitor/communicate on the appropriate frequency from start-up, during taxi, and until 10 miles from the airport unless the FARs or local procedures require otherwise. According to the legend, Currituck County Airport is non-towered and you should use 122.9 as the CTAF frequency.

Question 63
What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?

a. Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.
b. Provides a smoother operation with stable RPM and eliminates vibrations.
c. Permits the pilot to select and maintain a desired cruising speed.

You answered "Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 61-23C, Chapter 2 states:A controllable-pitch propeller permits the pilot to select the blade angle that will result in the most efficient performance for a particular flight condition. A low blade angle or decreased pitch, reduces the propeller drag and allows more engine power for takeoffs. After airspeed is attained during cruising flight, the propeller blade is changed to a higher angle or increased pitch.

Question 64
(Refer to figure 51.) Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle?

a. Right-hand traffic on Runway 18.
b. Left-hand traffic on Runway 36.
c. Right-hand traffic on Runway 9.

You answered "Left-hand traffic on Runway 36.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The wind cone shows the wind is coming from approximately 310 degrees. The favored runways are 36 and 27. While right-hand traffic is indicated for runway 18, you would be landing with a tail wind. The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 4-3-3 states: The segmented circle system consists of the following components:Yes, there are no runway numbers on the FAA figure. You are supposed to figure this out for yourself as below: Runways are normally numbered in relation to their magnetic heading rounded off to the nearest 10 degrees. A runway with a magnetic heading of 250o is Runway 25. A runway facing due magnetic north (approx 355o-005o) is Runway 36. A runway facing due magnetic west is runway 27. If you know the numbering at one end of a runway, you can always calculate (or know) the number at the other end, as it is always a fixed reciprocal. For example, a runway with 18 painted on one end will always have 36 on the other. With time and experience, you will come to recognize other such pairs from memory. For now, you can practice figuring out the reciprocal of a given runway. Try figuring out the reciprocals (other ends) of Runays 7, 11, and 32 (answer at the bottom of this explanation). The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 4-3-3 states:

Question 65
(Refer to figure 4.) Which color identifies the never-exceed speed?

a. The red radial line.
b. Upper limit of the white arc.
c. Lower limit of the yellow arc.

You answered "The red radial line.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The red radial line on an airspeed indicator represents never exceed speed, or VNE. This speed should never be exceeded under any flight conditions, as the likelihood of system or structural failure is very high at such speed or above.The upper limit of the white arc represents the maximum flap extended speed (VFE). The lower limit of the yellow arc (collocated with the upper limit of the green arc), represents the maximum structural cruising speed (VNO).

Question 66
What is the lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight?

a. 1,500 feet AGL.
b. 1,000 feet AGL.
c. 2,000 feet AGL.

You answered "1,500 feet AGL.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.303 states: No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight -- a. Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement;

Question 67
(Refer to figure 31, illustration 5) On a magnetic heading of 035°, the magnetic bearing TO the station is

a. 180°.
b. 035°.
c. 215°.

The correct answer is: "035°."
Reference: Since this is a fixed card ADF, we have to superimpose the heading indicator over the ADF card to visualize the magnetic bearing to the station. If we are heading 035, and the relative bearing is 0 (directly on our nose), than 035 plus 0 gives us a magnetic bearing of 035 degrees.

Question 68
When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used?

a. Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.
b. Ailerons neutral.
c. Aileron down on the downwind side

The correct answer is: "Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing."
Reference: Position the aileron on the upwind side downward to deflect the air above the wing and hold the upwind wing down.Climb Into a Headwind, Dive away from a Tailwind.

Question 69
The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use

a. peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing.
b. regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-o'clock positions.
c. a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector.

You answered "a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 8-1-5 states:While the eyes can observe an approximate 200 degree arc of the horizon at one glance, only a very small center area called the fovea, in the rear of the eye, has the ability to send clear, sharply focused messages to the brain. All other visual information that is not processed directly through the fovea will be of less detail. An aircraft at a distance of 7 miles which appears in sharp focus within the foveal center of vision would have to be as close as 7/10 of a mile in order to be recognized if it were outside of foveal vision. Because the eyes can focus only on this narrow viewing area, effective scanning is accomplished with a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central visual field. Each movement should not exceed 10 degrees, and each area should be observed for at least 1 second to enable detection. Although horizontal back-and-forth eye movements seem preferred by most pilots, each pilot should develop a scanning pattern that is most comfortable and then adhere to it to assure optimum scanning.

Question 70
When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle is centered during an omnireceiver check using a VOR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read

a. 0° FROM or 180° TO, regardless of the pilot's position from the VOT.
b. 180° FROM, only if the pilot is due north of the VOT.
c. 0° TO or 180° FROM, regardless of the pilot's position from the VOT.

You answered "0° FROM or 180° TO, regardless of the pilot's position from the VOT.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 1-1-4 states: The FAA VOR test facility (VOT) transmits a test signal which provides users a convenient means to determine the operational status and accuracy of a VOR receiver while on the ground where a VOT is located. The airborne use of VOT is permitted; however, its use is strictly limited to those areas/altitudes specifically authorized in the A/FD or appropriate supplement. To use the VOT service, tune in the VOT frequency on your VOR receiver. With the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) centered, the omni-bearing selector should read 0 degrees with the to/from indication showing "from" or the omni-bearing selector should read 180 degrees with the to/from indication showing "to." Should the VOR receiver operate as an RMI (Radio Magnetic Indicator), it will indicate 180 degrees on any omni-bearing selector (OBS) setting. Two means of identification are used: one is a series of dots and the other is a continuous tone. Information concerning an individual test signal can be obtained from the local FSS.

Question 71
(Refer to figure 25, and figure 29.) The VOR is tuned to Bonham VORTAC (area 3), and the aircraft is positioned over the town of Sulphur Springs (area 5). Which VOR indication is correct?

a. 7.
b. 1.
c. 8.

You answered "7.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The aircraft position is on the 120 radial from the Bonham VORTAC (BYP) (blue line). With 210 set in the OBS, the Bonham VOR would indicate the aircraft is left of course as shown in picture 7. The indication in picture 7 is not displaying the TO/FROM indication because we are directly abeam the station. The indication in picture 8 shows the aircraft on the 030 radial from (210 TO) the station. The indication in picture 1 shows the aircraft southeast of the station.

Question 72
What is one purpose of wing flaps?

a. To decrease wing area to vary the lift.
b. To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed.
c. To relieve the pilot of maintaining continuous pressure on the controls.

You answered "To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 61-23C, chapter 2 states: Wing flaps are a movable part of the wing, normally hinged to the inboard trailing edge of each wing. Flaps are extended or retracted by the pilot. Extending the flaps increases the wing camber, wing area (some types), and the angle of attack of the wing. This increases wing lift and also increases induced drag. The increased lift enables the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without an increase in airspeed. Their use at recommended settings also provides increased lift under certain takeoff conditions. When the flaps are no longer needed, they can be retracted.

Question 73
(Refer to figure 18.) What weather phenomenon is causing IFR conditions in central Oklahoma?

a. Low visibility only.
b. Low ceilings and visibility.
c. Heavy rain showers.

You answered "Low ceilings and visibility.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The legend on the bottom of the Weather Depiction Chart defines the contoured area with shading as having ceilings of less than 1000 feet and visibility less than 3 miles. The circles throughout Oklahoma are solid black. Table 6-1 in AC 00-45 shows that they indicate an overcast sky condition. This question really tests your ability to make sense of a low quality, poor usability graphic weather product. First, you would need to locate Oklahoma. Hopefully your knowlege of US geography is good enought that you can recognize this as oklahoma: We see the shaded area in central Oklahoma. Looking at the legend, we see This should be enough to converge us on the answer of "low ceilings and visiblity." We get further emphasis of this from the solid black circles which indicate overcast skies. In general, in all such weather products, the degree to which such circles are filled in indicates the degree to which the sky is overcast - fully overcast in most of Oklahoma, though the only partially filled-in circle in north-central oklahoma suggests about 6/8ths broken cloud coverage there. We again apologize for the relatively low quality of the images here - however, they come from the FAA this way.

Question 74
In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the east if

a. a left turn is entered from a north heading.
b. an aircraft is decelerated while on a south heading.
c. an aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading.

You answered "a left turn is entered from a north heading.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: When turning from a northerly heading, the compass will initially indicate a turn in the opposite direction OSUN - Overshoot South, Undershoot North. When turning to a southern heading, the compass will inaccurately precede your actual bearing, so fly past your desired southern heading by approximately half your bank angle. When turning to a northern heading, the compass will indicate greater heading than actual bearing, so level off prior to your desired heading by approximately half your bank angle. ASON - Ahead South, Opposite North. When turning from a southerly heading, the compass will initially indicate a greater than actual bearing. When turning from a northerly heading, the compass will initially indicate a turn in the opposite directionANDS - Accelerate north, Decelerate south. This emphasizes that when on an easterly or westerly heading, when you accelerate, the magnetic compass will initially indicate a turn to the north, and when the aircraft is decelerated, the aircraft will initially indicate a turn to the south.

Question 75
The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind is known as the angle of

a. lift.
b. attack.
c. incidence.

You answered "attack.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 61-23, chapter 1 defines: Angle of Attack - the angle between the chord line of the wing and the direction of the relative wind.

Question 76
Preventive maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?

a. The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.
b. A full, detailed description of the work done must be entered in the airframe logbook.
c. The date the work was completed, and the name of the person who did the work must be entered in the airframe and engine logbook.

You answered "The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: " The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records. " If you have not done so already, ask to see the maintenance records of the aircraft that you fly in. Take your time to study and read the types of entries made.

Question 77
What service should a pilot normally expect from an En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station?

a. Severe weather information, changes to flight plans, and receipt of routine position reports.
b. Actual weather information and thunderstorm activity along the route.
c. Preferential routing and radar vectoring to circumnavigate severe weather.

The correct answer is: "Actual weather information and thunderstorm activity along the route."
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 7-1-4 states:EFAS is a service specifically designed to provide en route aircraft with timely and meaningful weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight intended, route of flight, and altitude. "Any Flightwatch, Cessna 123AB.""Cessna 123AB, Jonestown Flight Watch, Go Ahead...""Jonestown Flight Watch, Cessna 123AB is type Cessna 172, 20 miles west of the Smalltown VOR at 4500' heading for Springfield. VFR. I'm seeing a large front ahead of me that I didn't expect given the weather briefing I got earlier. Will that be a factor preventing us from cominuing under VFR?""Cessna 123AB, My radar picture for your route of flight currently indicates ..."In conjunction with this service, EFAS is also a central collection and distribution point for pilot reported weather information. EFAS is provided by specially trained specialists in selected AFSSs controlling multiple Remote Communications Outlets covering a large geographical area and is normally available throughout the conterminous U.S. and Puerto Rico from 6 a.m. to 10 p.m. EFAS provides communications capabilities for aircraft flying at 5,000 feet above ground level to 17,500 feet MSL on a common frequency of 122.0 MHz.Discrete EFAS frequencies have been established to ensure communications coverage from 18,000 through 45,000 MSL serving in each specific ARTCC area. These discrete frequencies may be used below 18,000 feet when coverage permits reliable communication.

Question 78
(Refer to figure 24 and 59.) Determine the compass heading for a flight from Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2) to Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1). The wind is from 280° at 08 knots, and the true airspeed is 85 knots.

a. 042°.
b. 038°.
c. 033°.

You answered "042°.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Place a plotter on the chart, with the edge lined up on both Claxton-Evans Co. and Hampton Varnville and read 044 true. Add the west variation of 5 degrees to determine a magnetic course of 049. The wind requires a correction to the left of 4 degrees giving us a magnetic heading of 045 degrees. Interpolating between -3 degrees correction for 030 and -4 degrees correction for 060 gives us a steering correction of -3.5 degrees. Subtract 3.5 degrees from 045 for a compass heading of 042.5 degrees. The closest answer is 042.

Question 79
Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff?

a. Vy
b. Va
c. Vx

You answered "Vx".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: " Flying at VX provides the best ANGLE of climb, that is, the greatest gain in altitude for the shortest distance after takeoff." VY is the best RATE of climb speed, that is, you get the most altitude in the shortest TIME when you fly at VY. " VA is maneuvering speed.

Question 80
One of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front is

a. an increase in cloud coverage.
b. an increase in relative humidity.
c. a change in temperature.

You answered "a change in temperature.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-6 states:Temperature is one of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front. At the surface, the passage of a front usually causes noticeable temperature change. When flying through a front, you note a significant change in temperature, especially at low altitudes. Remember that the temperature change, even when gradual, is faster and more pronounced than a change during a flight wholly within one air mass. Thus, for safety, obtain a new altimeter setting after flying through a front.

Question 81
What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft?

a. A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience.
b. Certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current biennial flight review.
c. An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.

You answered "An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: " You must carry your pilot certificate and a current valid medical certificate with you when operating as Pilot In Command of any aircraft.

Question 82
Each recreational or private pilot is required to have

a. a biennial flight review.
b. an annual flight review.
c. a semiannual flight review.

You answered "a biennial flight review.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Recreational and Private pilots need Biennial (every two years) Flight Reviews (BFRs). In classic FAA style, these must be accomplished every 24 calendar months. Before you fly, you need a BFR.

Question 83
If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?

a. August 31, 1 year later.
b. August 31, 2 years later.
c. August 8, next year.

You answered "August 31, 2 years later.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Recreational and Private pilots need Biennial (every two years) Flight Reviews (BFRs). In classic FAA style, these must be accomplished every 24 calendar months. BeFoRe you fly, you need a BFR.

Question 84
(Refer to figure 36.) What is the expected fuel consumption for a 1,000-nautical mile flight under the following conditions? Pressure altitude 8,000 ft Temperature 22 °C Manifold pressure 20.8" Hg Wind Calm

a. 60.2 gallons.
b. 70.1 gallons.
c. 73.2 gallons.

You answered "70.1 gallons.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: In the ISA +20 C column of figure 36, you will find that the 8000' row indicates a temperature of 22C and a manifold pressure of 20.8" Hg.We see that the no-wind performance we can expect is 164 KTAS at 11.5 GPH. So (keeping in mind that a knot is a nautical mile per hour), to travel 1000 nm, it will take us 1000 nm / 164 kts = 6.1 hours. Multiplying this by our fuel consumption rate of 11.5 GPH, we get 70.1 gallons. Please note that only the 3rd column (ISA +20 C) is represented on the explanation figure

Question 85
How can a military airport be identified at night?

a. Alternate white and green light flashes.
b. White flashing lights with steady green at the same location.
c. Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes.

You answered "Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: A military airport can be identified at night through its beacon which emits dual-peaked white flashes between green flashes. Civil, not military, airports emit alternating green and white flashes. White flashing lights with steady green at the same location may well be a disco or a restaurant, but it's not the identifying light for a military airport.

Question 86
An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in

a. Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL.
b. Class D airspace.
c. Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport.

You answered "Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.131 states: "(d) Transponder requirements. No person may operate an aircraft in a Class B airspace area unless the aircraft is equipped with the applicable operating transponder and automatic altitude reporting equipment specified in paragraph (a) of §91.215, except as provided in paragraph (d) of that section."

Question 87
A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least

a. 25 knots.
b. 10 knots.
c. 15 knots.

You answered "25 knots.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-6A, Chapter 9 states:You can be relatively certain of a shear zone in the inversion if you know the wind at 2,000 to 4,000 feet is 25 knots or more. Allow a margin of airspeed above normal climb or approach speed to alleviate danger of stall in event of turbulence or sudden change in wind velocity.

Question 88
When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested?

a. At 15 and 45 minutes past the hour.
b. During the first 5 minutes after the hour.
c. Anytime.

You answered "During the first 5 minutes after the hour.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 6-2-5 states: Testing: 1. ELTs should be tested in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions, preferably in a shielded or screened room to prevent the broadcast of signals which could trigger a false alert.2. When this cannot be done, aircraft operational testing is authorized on 121.5 MHz and 243.0 MHz as follows: a. Tests should be conducted only during the first 5 minutes after any hour. If operational tests must be made outside of this time-frame, they should be coordinated with the nearest FAA Control Tower or FSS. b. Tests should be no longer than three audible sweeps. c. If the antenna is removable, a dummy load should be substituted during test procedures. d. Airborne tests are not authorized.

Question 89
Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?

a. Airports with control towers underlying Class A, B, and C airspace are shown in blue, Class D and E airspace are magenta.
b. Airports with control towers underlying Class C, D, and E airspace are shown in magenta.
c. Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue.

You answered "Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The sectional chart legend tells us airports with control towers (underlying Class B, C, D airspace) are depicted in blue. " "Airports with control towers underlying Class A, B, and C airspace are shown in blue, Class D and E airspace are magenta." is incorrect because Class D airports have operating control towers and are indicated in blue. " "Airports with control towers underlying Class C, D, and E airspace are shown in magenta." is incorrect because Class C and D airports do have control towers and are shown in blue, not magenta. Sidenote: perhaps somewhat humorously, the part of the incorrect answer that says "Airports with control towers underlying Class A, B, and C airspace are shown in blue" is actually correct, when you think about it. Yes, indeed - airports under class A airpsace (remember. class A airspace is from 18000 feet and above, virtually everywhere) that have control towers are indeed depicted in blue (but only because such airports are also necessarily under class B, C, or D airspace!).

Question 90
An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates

a. that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums.
b. there are obstructions on the airport.
c. the Air Traffic Control tower is not in operation.

You answered "that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates that the airport located in class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums.Per the AIM: In Class B, Class C, Class D and Class E surface areas, operation of the airport beacon during the hours of daylight often indicates that the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet. ATC clearance in accordance with 14 CFR Part 91 is required for landing, takeoff and flight in the traffic pattern. Pilots should not rely solely on the operation of the airport beacon to indicate if weather conditions are IFR or VFR. At some locations with operating control towers, ATC personnel turn the beacon on or off when controls are in the tower. At many airports the airport beacon is turned on by a photoelectric cell or time clocks and ATC personnel cannot control them. There is no regulatory requirement for daylight operation and it is the pilot's responsibility to comply with proper preflight planning as required by 14 CFR Section 91.103.

Question 91
Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1,2006. The next inspection will be due no later than

a. September 30, 2007.
b. September 1, 2008.
c. September 30, 2008.

You answered "September 30, 2008.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.413 states: a. No persons may use an ATC transponder that is specified in 91.215(a), 121.345(c), or §135.143(c) of this chapter unless, within the preceding 24 calendar months, the ATC transponder has been tested and inspected and found to comply with appendix F of part 43 of this chapter; and b. Following any installation or maintenance on an ATC transponder where data correspondence error could be introduced, the integrated system has been tested, inspected, and found to comply with paragraph (c), appendix E, of part 43 of this chapter.

Question 92
The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to

a. stronger Coriolis force at the surface.
b. friction between the wind and the surface.
c. stronger pressure gradient at higher altitudes.

You answered "friction between the wind and the surface.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-6A, chapter 4 states:Friction between the wind and the terrain surface slows the wind. The rougher the terrain, the greater is the frictional effect. Also, the stronger the wind speed, the greater is the friction. One may not think of friction as a force, but it is a very real and effective force always acting opposite to wind direction.As frictional force slows the wind speed, Coriolis force decreases. However, friction does not affect pressure gradient force. Pressure gradient and Coriolis forces are no longer in balance. The stronger pressure gradient force turns the wind at an angle across the isobars toward lower pressure until the three forces balance. Frictional and Coriolis forces combine to just balance pressure gradient force.

Question 93
What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?

a. Frequent lightning.
b. Roll cloud.
c. Continuous updraft.

You answered "Continuous updraft.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-6A states:Although most cumulus clouds do not grow into thunderstorms, every thunderstorm begins as a cumulus. The key feature of the cumulus stage is an updraft.

Question 94
Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on

a. 123.6 MHz.
b. 122.0 MHz.
c. 122.1 MHz.

You answered "122.0 MHz.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: EFAS (Enroute Flight Advisory Service), otherwise known as 'Flight Watch' provides advisories below FL180 (18000') on 122.0. Remember the picture of the watch above - the face of the watch is the 0 of 122.0. The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 7-1-4 states: EFAS is a service specifically designed to provide en route aircraft with timely and meaningful weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight intended, route of flight, and altitude. In conjunction with this service, EFAS is also a central collection and distribution point for pilot reported weather information. EFAS is provided by specially trained specialists in selected AFSSs controlling multiple Remote Communications Outlets covering a large geographical area and is normally available throughout the conterminous U.S. and Puerto Rico from 6 a.m. to 10 p.m. EFAS provides communications capabilities for aircraft flying at 5,000 feet above ground level to 17,500 feet MSL on a common frequency of 122.0 MHz. Discrete EFAS frequencies have been established to ensure communications coverage from 18,000 through 45,000 MSL serving in each specific ARTCC area. These discrete frequencies may be used below 18,000 feet when coverage permits reliable communication.

Question 95
Which incident requires an immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office?

a. An in-flight radio communications failure.
b. An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident.
c. An in-flight generator or alternator failure.

You answered "An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: 49 CFR Part 830.5 states: The operator of any civil aircraft, or any public aircraft not operated by the Armed Forces or an intelligence agency of the United States, or any foreign aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest National Transportation Safety Board (Board) field office when: a. An aircraft accident or any of the following listed incidents occur: 1. Flight control system malfunction or failure;2. Inability of any required flight crewmember to perform normal flight duties as a result of injury or illness; 3. Failure of structural components of a turbine engine excluding compressor and turbine blades and vanes; 4. In-flight fire; or 5. Aircraft collide in flight. 6. Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000 for repair (including materials and labor) or fair market value in the event of total loss, whichever is less. 7. For large multiengine aircraft (more than 12,500 pounds maximum takeoff weight); i. In-flight failure of electrical systems which requires the sustained use of an emergency bus powered by a backup source such as a battery, auxiliary power unit, or air driven generator to retain flight control or essential instruments; ii. In-flight failure of hydraulic systems that results in sustained reliance on the sole remaining hydraulic or mechanical system for movement of flight control surfaces; iii. Sustained loss of the power or thrust produced by two or more engines; andiv. An evacuation of an aircraft in which an emergency egress system is utilized. b. An aircraft is overdue and is believed to have been involved in an accident.

Question 96
What are characteristics of unstable air?

a. Turbulence and poor surface visibility.
b. Nimbostratus clouds and good surface visibility.
c. Turbulence and good surface visibility.

You answered "Turbulence and good surface visibility.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-6, chapter 8 lists the characteristics of unstable air as:Cumuliform clouds, showery precipitation, rough air (turbulence), and good visibility (except in blowing obstructions).

Question 97
If an aircraft is involved in an accident, which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified

a. immediately.
b. within 48 hours.
c. within 7 days.

You answered "immediately.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: 49 CFR Part 830.5 states: The operator of any civil aircraft, or any public aircraft not operated by the Armed Forces or an intelligence agency of the United States, or any foreign aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest National Transportation Safety Board (Board) field office when: a a. An aircraft accident or any of the following listed incidents occur: 1. Flight control system malfunction or failure; 2. Inability of any required flight crewmember to perform normal flight duties as a result of injury or illness; 3. Failure of structural components of a turbine engine excluding compressor and turbine blades and vanes;4. In-flight fire; or 5. Aircraft collide in flight.6. Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000 for repair (including materials and labor) or fair market value in the event of total loss, whichever is less. 7. For large multiengine aircraft (more than 12,500 pounds maximum takeoff weight); i. In-flight failure of electrical systems which requires the sustained use of an emergency bus powered by a backup source such as a battery, auxiliary power unit, or air driven generator to retain flight control or essential instruments; ii. In-flight failure of hydraulic systems that results in sustained reliance on the sole remaining hydraulic or mechanical system for movement of flight control surfaces; iii. Sustained loss of the power or thrust produced by two or more engines; and iv. An evacuation of an aircraft in which an emergency egress system is utilized. b. An aircraft is overdue and is believed to have been involved in an accident.

Question 98
When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable?

a. When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour.
b. When the ELT can no longer be heard over the airplane's communication radio receiver.
c. After any inadvertent activation of the ELT.

You answered "When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.207 states: c) Batteries used in the emergency locator transmitters required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section must be replaced (or recharged, if the batteries are rechargeable) -- 1. When the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour; or 2. When 50 percent of their useful life (or, for rechargeable batteries, 50 percent of their useful life of charge) has expired, as established by the transmitter manufacturer under its approval. The new expiration date for replacing (or recharging) the battery must be legibly marked on the outside of the transmitter and entered in the aircraft maintenance record. Paragraph (c)(2) of this section does not apply to batteries (such as water-activated batteries) that are essentially unaffected during probable storage intervals.

Question 99
(Refer to figure 21 area 4.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302B?

a. Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.
b. High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.
c. Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles.

You answered "Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 3-4-3 states:Restricted Areas contain airspace identified by an area on the surface of the earth within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restrictions. Activities within these areas must be confined because of their nature or limitations imposed upon aircraft operations that are not a part of those activities or both. Restricted Areas denote the existence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. Penetration of Restricted Areas without authorization from the using or controlling agency may be extremely hazardous to the aircraft and its occupants. Restricted Areas are published in the Federal Register and constitute FAR Part 73.

Question 100
What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight?

a. There is no exception.
b. If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.
c. If the passengers pay all the operating expenses.

You answered "If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 61.113 allows for an exception to the generally strict rules regarding private pilots and paying passengers in the case that a donation is made to a charitable organization. It stands to note that the such operations must meet certain standards, including notification of the regional FAA General Aircraft District Office

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Last modified: 06/17/09